Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.

2. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

3. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates her mannerisms. Which defense mechanism does the nurse recognize in this client?

• A. Sublimation.
• B. Identification.
• C. Introjection.
• D. Repression.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Identification is the correct answer. It is a defense mechanism where an individual unconsciously models themselves after someone they admire or feel close to. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, indicating identification. Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Introjection is the internalization of external attitudes or voices, while repression involves suppressing unwanted thoughts or desires.

4. The nurse is using the CAGE questionnaire as a screening tool for a client who is seeking help because his wife said he had a drinking problem. What information should the nurse explore in depth with the client based on this screening tool?

• A. Cancer screening results, anger, gastritis, daily alcohol intake.
• B. Efforts to cut down, annoyance with questions, guilt, drinking as an 'Eye-opener.'
• C. Consumption, liver enzyme, gastrointestinal complaints and bleeding.
• D. Minimizes drinking, frequently misses family events, guilt about drinking, amount of daily intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is used to identify problematic drinking behaviors. Choice B is correct because it includes key aspects that the nurse should explore further with the client. 'Efforts to cut down' can indicate acknowledgment of excessive drinking, 'guilt' reflects emotional distress related to drinking, and 'drinking as an 'Eye-opener'' suggests potential dependency. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly address the essential elements assessed by the CAGE questionnaire and may not provide relevant information for further evaluation of the client's drinking habits.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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