Nursing Elites

1. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Allow the client to engage in any activities they choose.
• B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• D. Allow the client to take short naps during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder often experience excessive energy and impulsivity. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial to help manage these symptoms. This intervention promotes stability, reduces overstimulation, and supports the client in regaining control over their behaviors. Choices A and C may exacerbate impulsivity and overstimulation, while choice D does not address the need for environmental structure and may not be effective in managing manic symptoms.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with a mental illness. The client asks, 'Will I be able to live a normal life?' What is the best response for the nurse to provide?

• A. Yes, you will be able to live a normal life.
• B. Many people with mental illness lead full and productive lives.
• C. It will depend on your treatment and the choices you make.
• D. There is no normal; everyone is unique in their own way.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to provide the client with hope while acknowledging the importance of their treatment and choices. Choice C addresses the client's concern by highlighting the impact of their treatment and personal choices on their future. It encourages personal responsibility and active participation in their recovery. Choices A and B may sound reassuring, but they do not empower the client to take an active role in their well-being. Choice D, while promoting individuality, does not directly address the client's question about living a normal life after a mental illness diagnosis.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

4. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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