Nursing Elites

1. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Allow the client to engage in any activities they choose.
• B. Provide a quiet and structured environment.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• D. Allow the client to take short naps during the day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder often experience excessive energy and impulsivity. Providing a quiet and structured environment is crucial to help manage these symptoms. This intervention promotes stability, reduces overstimulation, and supports the client in regaining control over their behaviors. Choices A and C may exacerbate impulsivity and overstimulation, while choice D does not address the need for environmental structure and may not be effective in managing manic symptoms.

2. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

3. A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was Jesus Christ, but now he knows he is not. Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Did you really believe you were Jesus Christ?
• B. I think you're getting well.
• C. Others have had similar thoughts when under stress.
• D. Why did you think you were Jesus Christ?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it validates the client's experience by acknowledging that others have had similar thoughts when under stress. This response helps normalize the client's past experiences without judgment, fostering a supportive and empathetic environment. Choices A and D may come off as judgmental or confrontational, potentially making the client feel misunderstood or defensive. Choice B, 'I think you're getting well,' does not address the client's past belief or provide the understanding and validation that Choice C offers.

4. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
• B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
• C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
• D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.

5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

• A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
• C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
• D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

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