HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client is being successfully treated with clozapine (Clozaril). Which of the following statements by the client reflects a need for further teaching about managing the drug's adverse effects?
- A. If I eat too many fruits, I'll get constipated.
- B. I need to take the medicine with food to avoid nausea.
- C. I have to get up slowly so I don't get dizzy.
- D. Sometimes I have to push myself because I'm sleepy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A reflects a need for further teaching as the client mistakenly believes that eating too many fruits causes constipation, showing a misunderstanding about dietary fiber's role in preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate understanding of managing clozapine's adverse effects, such as taking it with food to avoid nausea, getting up slowly to prevent dizziness, and pushing oneself when feeling sleepy.
2. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?
- A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
- B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
- C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
- D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?
- A. Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.
- B. Burn the ticks with a match or a small lighter.
- C. Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.
- D. Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.
4. Select the stage of viral hepatitis that is accurately paired with its characteristic(s).
- A. The prodromal stage: Jaundice begins
- B. The icteric stage: Flu-like symptoms occur
- C. The pre-icteric stage: Elevated urine bilirubin levels
- D. The post-icteric stage: Jaundice and dark urine occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The post-icteric stage of viral hepatitis is accurately described as the stage where jaundice and dark urine occur due to the accumulation of bilirubin. The resolution of jaundice and normalization of urine color are seen in this stage. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. In the prodromal stage, symptoms like fatigue and malaise appear before jaundice. The icteric stage is characterized by jaundice, not flu-like symptoms. The pre-icteric stage does not typically involve elevated urine bilirubin levels, as this occurs after the icteric stage.
5. While caring for a client who is being mechanically ventilated, the nurse responds to a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O.
- B. Decreased lung compliance during ventilation.
- C. Bilateral crackles with increased secretions.
- D. Restless client who is biting the endotracheal tube.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A restless client biting the endotracheal tube can increase airway resistance, triggering the high-pressure alarm and indicating a need for immediate intervention. This behavior can lead to complications such as dislodgement of the tube or airway obstruction. Endotracheal cuff pressure greater than 25 cm H2O, decreased lung compliance, and bilateral crackles with increased secretions are important assessments but do not directly address the urgent need to intervene when a high-pressure alarm is triggered.