HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client is being successfully treated with clozapine (Clozaril). Which of the following statements by the client reflects a need for further teaching about managing the drug's adverse effects?
- A. If I eat too many fruits, I'll get constipated.
- B. I need to take the medicine with food to avoid nausea.
- C. I have to get up slowly so I don't get dizzy.
- D. Sometimes I have to push myself because I'm sleepy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A reflects a need for further teaching as the client mistakenly believes that eating too many fruits causes constipation, showing a misunderstanding about dietary fiber's role in preventing constipation. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate understanding of managing clozapine's adverse effects, such as taking it with food to avoid nausea, getting up slowly to prevent dizziness, and pushing oneself when feeling sleepy.
2. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?
- A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
- B. Assess intake and output.
- C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
- D. Limit visitors to family members only.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
4. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?
- A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
- B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
- C. How can I help answer your questions?
- D. What concerns do you have at this time?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.
5. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing a flashback. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
- B. Help the client to focus on the present.
- C. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.
- D. Leave the client alone to work through the flashback.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action is to help the client focus on the present (B), which can reduce the intensity of the flashback. Encouraging discussion of the trauma (A) should be done when the client is not actively experiencing a flashback. While medication (C) may be necessary, it is not the first priority in this situation. Leaving the client alone (D) is not appropriate as they need support to manage the flashback.
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