Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic heart failure is being discharged with a new prescription for furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Restrict your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes containing potassium.
• D. Weigh yourself once a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss due to increased urinary excretion. Potassium-rich foods can help prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may not be suitable for all patients with heart failure, and a general restriction of 1 liter per day is not typically recommended. Avoiding salt substitutes containing potassium (choice C) is not a priority teaching point in this scenario. Weighing oneself once a week (choice D) is important for monitoring fluid status, but increasing potassium-rich foods is more directly related to the potential side effects of furosemide.

2. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

3. A client with urolithiasis is preparing for discharge after lithotripsy. Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's postoperative discharge instructions?

• A. Report when hematuria becomes pink-tinged
• B. Use incentive spirometer
• C. Restrict physical activities
• D. Monitor urinary stream for a decrease in output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After lithotripsy, monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output is essential to identify any potential complications such as urinary retention or obstruction. Reporting pink-tinged hematuria is important, but monitoring the urinary stream for a decrease in output takes precedence as it directly assesses renal function and potential complications. Using an incentive spirometer is not directly related to post-lithotripsy care. Restricting physical activities may be necessary initially but is not the priority compared to monitoring urinary output.

4. What should be included in the medical management of sickle cell crisis?

• A. Information for the parents including home care
• B. Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management
• C. Pain management and administration of iron supplements
• D. Adequate oxygenation and factor VIII

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provisions for adequate hydration and pain management. In managing a sickle cell crisis, it is essential to provide adequate hydration to prevent further sickling of red blood cells and ensure proper pain management to alleviate the severe pain associated with the crisis. While information for parents and home care may be important aspects of overall care, they are not specific to the immediate medical management of a sickle cell crisis. Administration of iron supplements is not recommended during a sickle cell crisis as it can potentially worsen the condition by promoting the production of more sickled red blood cells. Adequate oxygenation is crucial in sickle cell disease, but factor VIII is not typically part of the management of a sickle cell crisis.

5. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

Similar Questions