HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
2. An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist with personal care, but leave oral care for the nurse to complete.
- B. Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.
- C. Use alcohol-based mouthwash to clean the ulcers.
- D. Apply an antifungal cream to the mouth ulcers.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
3. An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative
- B. Encourage client to drink water
- C. Apply a high flow venturi mask
- D. Assist her to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.
4. Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?
- A. Positive Kernig sign, diarrhea, and headache
- B. Negative Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and irritability
- C. Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia
- D. Negative Kernig sign, vomiting, and fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via a nasal cannula. Which assessment finding indicates a potential complication of oxygen therapy?
- A. Increased respiratory rate
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Improved oxygen saturation
- D. Complaints of dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In clients with COPD, oxygen therapy can lead to a decrease in the respiratory drive caused by the removal of the hypoxic drive. This can result in carbon dioxide retention, leading to a decreased level of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because an increased respiratory rate is typically a sign of hypoxia, improved oxygen saturation is a positive response to oxygen therapy, and complaints of dry mouth are not directly related to oxygen therapy complications in this scenario.
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