Nursing Elites

1. What assessment findings should lead the nurse to suspect Down syndrome in a newborn?

• A. Hypertonia and dark skin
• B. Low-set ears and a simian crease
• C. Inner epicanthal folds and a high, domed forehead
• D. Long, thin fingers and excessive hair

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Low-set ears and a simian crease.' These are key physical characteristics commonly seen in newborns with Down syndrome. Low-set ears, along with a simian crease (a single palmar crease), are indicative of Down syndrome. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hypertonia, dark skin, inner epicanthal folds, a high, domed forehead, long, thin fingers, and excessive hair are not specific features associated with Down syndrome in newborns. Therefore, the presence of low-set ears and a simian crease should raise suspicion for Down syndrome and prompt further evaluation.

2. A client who is experiencing respiratory distress is admitted with respiratory acidosis. Which pathophysiological process supports the client’s respiratory acidosis?

• A. Low oxygen levels are present in the blood.
• B. High levels of carbon dioxide have accumulated in the blood.
• C. Increased bicarbonate levels are causing alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory rate is increased, causing hyperventilation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: High levels of carbon dioxide in the blood lead to respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation. The correct answer is B. In respiratory acidosis, the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood occurs due to inadequate exhalation, leading to acidosis. Choice A is incorrect as low oxygen levels are related to hypoxemia, not respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as increased bicarbonate levels would lead to alkalosis, not acidosis. Choice D is incorrect as an increased respiratory rate causing hyperventilation would actually help decrease carbon dioxide levels, not lead to respiratory acidosis.

3. Which finding should the nurse report immediately for a client receiving a blood transfusion?

• A. Mild itching and rash
• B. Temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C)
• C. Heart rate increase of 10 beats per minute
• D. Slight headache

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A temperature increase of 1.5°F (0.8°C) during a blood transfusion is a significant finding that can indicate a transfusion reaction, such as a febrile non-hemolytic reaction, which can progress to more severe reactions. It is crucial to report this immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention. Mild itching and rash (choice A) are common minor reactions to blood transfusions and can be managed appropriately without immediate concern. An increase in heart rate by 10 beats per minute (choice C) is within an acceptable range and may be a normal compensatory response to the transfusion. A slight headache (choice D) is a common complaint and is not typically associated with severe transfusion reactions; thus, it does not require immediate reporting compared to the temperature increase.

4. What are priority nursing interventions designed to do for a 4-year-old child with cerebral palsy?

• A. Assist with referral to specialized education.
• B. Support the child with independent toileting.
• C. Assist the child to develop effective communication.
• D. Encourage the child to ambulate independently.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Assist the child to develop effective communication.' Children with cerebral palsy often face challenges with communication skills. Therefore, priority nursing interventions aim to help them improve their communication abilities. Choice A is incorrect because while education is important, the priority for a child with cerebral palsy is to address immediate needs. Choice B is incorrect as toileting, although important, is not the priority in this case. Choice D is incorrect as ambulation may not be feasible or the most critical concern for a child with cerebral palsy.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is advised to follow a low-phosphorus diet. Which food should the client avoid?

• A. Milk
• B. Apples
• C. Carrots
• D. Rice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Milk. Milk is high in phosphorus and should be avoided in a low-phosphorus diet for clients with chronic kidney disease. Choice B (Apples), C (Carrots), and D (Rice) are not significant sources of phosphorus and can be included in moderation in a low-phosphorus diet. Apples and carrots are generally considered healthy choices for most individuals, while rice is a staple food that is low in phosphorus and can be part of a renal diet.

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