Nursing Elites

1. A client with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the flashbacks.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Discuss relaxation techniques with the client.
• D. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the flashbacks is the most appropriate initial intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks and nightmares. This intervention helps the client express their feelings, thoughts, and experiences related to the trauma they are going through. It can assist in processing the traumatic events and starting the healing process. Choice B, assisting the client in developing coping strategies, is important but should come after the client has started to verbalize and process their experiences. Choice C, discussing relaxation techniques, may be beneficial later in the treatment process but may not be as effective initially as addressing the traumatic experiences. Choice D, referring the client to a PTSD support group, is also valuable but may not be as immediate as encouraging the client to talk about their flashbacks to begin the therapeutic process.

2. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
• B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

3. A client is diagnosed with schizophrenia and exhibits apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities. The nurse should recognize that these symptoms are most likely due to which of the following?

• A. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• C. Side effects of antipsychotic medication.
• D. Symptoms of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Apathy, lack of energy, and lack of interest in daily activities are negative symptoms of schizophrenia (A). Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include hallucinations and delusions (B). While antipsychotic medication side effects can sometimes cause lethargy or sedation (C), the scenario specifically describes negative symptoms. Depression can also cause similar symptoms (D), but in the context of schizophrenia, these are recognized as negative symptoms.

4. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?

• A. Sublimation
• B. Suppression
• C. Regression
• D. Compensation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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