HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
- A. Take this medication at the same time each day.
- B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Take this medication immediately after a meal.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.
2. A client is prescribed amitriptyline for depression. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Insomnia
- B. Weight loss
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Increased appetite.' Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is known to commonly cause increased appetite, leading to weight gain. Monitoring for increased appetite is crucial as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being. Choice A, 'Insomnia,' is less likely as amitriptyline is more associated with sedative effects. Choice B, 'Weight loss,' is incorrect as weight gain is a more common side effect. Choice C, 'Dry mouth,' is a potential side effect of amitriptyline, but it is not directly related to increased appetite, which is the primary concern in this case.
3. The practical nurse administered 15 units of NPH insulin subcutaneously to a client before they consumed their breakfast at 7:30 AM. At what time is the client at an increased risk for a hypoglycemic reaction?
- A. 8:30 to 11:30 AM
- B. 3:30 to 7:30 PM
- C. 9:30 PM to midnight
- D. 1:00 to 5:00 AM
Correct answer: B
Rationale: NPH insulin, an intermediate-acting type, peaks approximately 8 to 12 hours after subcutaneous administration. Considering this, the client is most likely to experience a hypoglycemic reaction between 3:30 and 7:30 PM, making option B the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they fall outside the peak time for a hypoglycemic reaction after administering NPH insulin.
4. When educating a client about the adverse effects of conjunctivitis, what is a serious condition that requires prompt attention?
- A. Contact lens irritation
- B. Decreased sex drive
- C. Brown spots on the skin
- D. Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Epigastric pain unrelieved by antacids is a concerning symptom that may indicate a more serious underlying condition such as a perforated ulcer. This symptom requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.
5. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?
- A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from a vial
- B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
- C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
- D. Pull up 30 units from a vial but only administer 10 units
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.
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