Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed raloxifene. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication at the same time each day.
• B. Take this medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Take this medication immediately after a meal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed raloxifene, a medication used for osteoporosis, is to take it at the same time each day. This consistency helps maintain steady blood levels of the medication, enhancing its effectiveness in managing the condition. Choice B is incorrect because raloxifene does not require a full glass of water for administration. Choice C is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as raloxifene should not be taken immediately after a meal.

2. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

• A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
• B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
• C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
• D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed atenolol, a beta-blocker medication used to treat hypertension, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Atenolol works by slowing the heart rate, and one common adverse effect is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because atenolol typically does not cause tachycardia, hypotension, or hyperglycemia as primary side effects. Instead, bradycardia is a common concern due to the drug's mechanism of action in reducing heart rate.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a patient with a new order for an oral laxative. Which is a contraindication in administering an oral laxative?

• A. Cardiac problems
• B. Abdominal pain of unknown origin
• C. Several hemorrhoids
• D. Chronic constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an oral laxative to a patient with abdominal pain of unknown origin is contraindicated because it could be a sign of a more serious underlying condition that needs immediate medical evaluation. Giving a laxative in such a situation without proper diagnosis could potentially worsen the patient's condition or delay appropriate treatment. Choice A (Cardiac problems) is not a contraindication for an oral laxative unless the patient has a specific cardiac condition that interacts with the laxative. Choice C (Several hemorrhoids) and Choice D (Chronic constipation) are not contraindications for administering an oral laxative.

5. A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?

• A. Ranitidine reduces the risk of ulcers associated with steroids.
• B. Ranitidine decreases the risk of infection associated with steroids.
• C. Ranitidine decreases blood sugar elevations associated with steroids.
• D. Ranitidine reduces sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.

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