HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.
2. What information would the nurse include in the preoperative plan of care for an infant with myelomeningocele?
- A. Positioning the infant supine with a pillow under the buttocks
- B. Covering the sac with saline-soaked nonadhesive gauze
- C. Wrapping the infant snugly in a blanket
- D. Applying a diaper to prevent fecal soiling of the sac
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Covering the sac with saline-soaked nonadhesive gauze. This intervention is essential in caring for an infant with myelomeningocele as it helps prevent infection and maintains a moist environment around the sac before surgical repair. Positioning the infant supine with a pillow under the buttocks (Choice A) may be suitable for comfort but is not directly related to managing the myelomeningocele. Wrapping the infant snugly in a blanket (Choice C) and applying a diaper (Choice D) are not recommended as they can increase the risk of infection and damage to the sac.
3. A client with heart failure develops hyperaldosteronism. What dietary recommendation is essential for managing this condition?
- A. Limit intake of high potassium foods
- B. Replace salt with salt substitute
- C. Monitor skin for excessive bruising
- D. Cover your skin before going outside
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperaldosteronism can lead to increased potassium retention, which can be problematic for individuals with heart failure. Limiting intake of high potassium foods is crucial to prevent hyperkalemia, a condition that can worsen heart failure. Therefore, advising the client to limit high potassium foods is essential in managing hyperaldosteronism in the setting of heart failure.
4. A 14-month-old had cleft palate surgical repair several days ago. The parents ask the nurse about feedings after discharge. Which lunch is the best example of an appropriate meal?
- A. Hot dog, carrot sticks, gelatin, milk
- B. Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk
- C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, chips, pudding, milk
- D. Baked chicken, applesauce, cookie, milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B, 'Soup, blenderized soft foods, ice cream, milk,' is the correct answer. After cleft palate repair, it is essential to provide soft and blenderized foods to prevent trauma to the surgical site and promote proper healing. Choices A, C, and D contain foods that may be difficult for the child to consume comfortably and safely after a cleft palate surgical repair. A hot dog, carrot sticks, chips, and hard cookies could potentially cause injury or discomfort to the surgical area. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich might be too difficult to swallow or may stick to the surgical site. Baked chicken could be too challenging to chew. Therefore, the best choice for an appropriate meal post cleft palate repair is soft, blenderized foods like soup, along with other soft options like ice cream and milk.
5. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?
- A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
- B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
- C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
- D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.