a client with anorexia nervosa has been admitted to the hospital which nursing intervention is most important during the first 48 hours
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.

2. The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.

3. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

4. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid addiction. What is the priority nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for signs of respiratory depression. During opioid withdrawal, the priority is to monitor the client for respiratory depression as it can be life-threatening. Respiratory depression is a serious concern during opioid withdrawal, and prompt recognition and intervention are crucial. Administering methadone as prescribed (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan but is not the priority in this situation. Providing a calm and quiet environment (Choice C) and encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (Choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring for respiratory depression.

Similar Questions

The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?
A male client with delirium becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night. The best initial nursing intervention is to:
The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?
A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?
A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

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