Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia as a potential side effect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, hence monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications related to hypokalemia.

2. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

• A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
• B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
• C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
• D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Cough
• B. Dizziness
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cough. Lisinopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a side effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for this adverse reaction as it may lead to discontinuation of the medication. Dizziness, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia are not typically associated with lisinopril use. Dizziness is more commonly seen with antihypertensives that cause orthostatic hypotension. Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia are not usually linked to lisinopril use.

4. How does omeprazole work in treating a peptic ulcer?

• A. Increasing the production of gastric acid
• B. Neutralizing stomach acid
• C. Coating the stomach lining
• D. Reducing gastric acid secretion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid secretion. By inhibiting the enzyme responsible for pumping acid into the stomach, omeprazole helps decrease the acidity level in the stomach, providing relief from peptic ulcers. Option A is incorrect because omeprazole does not increase gastric acid production; instead, it decreases it. Option B is incorrect as omeprazole does not neutralize existing stomach acid but rather reduces its secretion. Option C is incorrect as omeprazole does not coat the stomach lining but acts on reducing acid secretion.

5. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?

• A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from a vial
• B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
• C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
• D. Pull up 30 units from a vial but only administer 10 units

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.

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