Nursing Elites

1. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperchloremia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypophosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

2. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.

4. A client with a productive cough and fever has been diagnosed with bacterial pneumonia and is being admitted to the unit from the emergency room. Which intervention should the practical nurse ensure has been done prior to the administration of antibiotics?

• A. Sputum specimen
• B. Set of vital signs
• C. Electrocardiogram
• D. Glucometer check

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before initiating antibiotic therapy in a client with bacterial pneumonia, obtaining a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity is essential. This helps identify the specific bacteria causing the infection and guides the selection of the most effective antibiotic treatment.

5. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

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