a 59 year old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure the practical nurse pn should monitor the client f
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A 59-year-old client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg twice a day for the management of heart failure. The practical nurse should monitor the client for the development of which complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the kidneys, leading to increased potassium excretion and potentially causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can lead to cardiac irregularities, making it crucial for the practical nurse to monitor the client for this electrolyte imbalance. Choice B, Hyperchloremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Choices C and D, Hypercalcemia and Hypophosphatemia, are not common complications of furosemide therapy.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by thinning the blood. One of the potential side effects of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, blood in the urine or stool, or prolonged bleeding from cuts or gums. Prompt recognition and management of bleeding are essential to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, headache, and dizziness are not common side effects of warfarin. Monitoring for bleeding is a priority due to the anticoagulant properties of warfarin.

3. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.

4. A client who is prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension calls the clinic for advice. Which condition should the practical nurse notify the health care provider immediately and instruct the client to stop taking the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. If a client prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension experiences vision and/or hearing loss or an erection lasting more than 4 hours, the practical nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the medication immediately and notify the health care provider. These symptoms could indicate serious side effects that require prompt medical attention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an erection lasting more than 2 hours (not 4 hours as stated in choice B) is a critical adverse effect that warrants immediate medical attention. Nasal congestion (choice C) and feeling flushed (choice D) are common side effects of sildenafil and typically do not necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication or emergency intervention.

5. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

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