a client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest select all that apply
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1

1. A client with hemorrhoids asks for information about a high fiber diet. Which breakfast menu items should the nurse suggest? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet is beneficial for managing hemorrhoids as it helps maintain bowel regularity. Raisin bran muffins are a good choice for breakfast as they are high in fiber. Oatmeal is also a high-fiber option that aids digestion and prevents constipation. Raspberries are rich in fiber and contribute to a high-fiber diet. Scrambled eggs, on the other hand, are not high in fiber and do not provide the necessary fiber content needed for managing hemorrhoids.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This finding indicates impaired liver function affecting the synthesis of clotting factors, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT levels (Choice A) indicate liver cell damage but do not directly correlate with the risk of bleeding. A decreased albumin level (Choice B) is common in liver disease but is not the most concerning in terms of bleeding risk. Elevated bilirubin levels (Choice C) are seen in liver disease but do not directly reflect the risk of bleeding as PT/INR values do.

3. A client who has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take all prescribed medications as directed.' This instruction is the most important because adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial in treating tuberculosis effectively and preventing the development of drug-resistant TB. While choice A is important for infection control, ensuring treatment adherence through proper medication intake takes precedence. Choice C is also essential for monitoring progress but is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is relevant for preventing transmission but is not as crucial as ensuring proper treatment by taking medications as directed.

4. Which of the following are key parameters that produce blood pressure? (Select ONE that does not apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are indeed key parameters that directly influence blood pressure. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, affecting how much blood is pumped. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction. Peripheral resistance is the resistance of the arteries to blood flow, impacting the pressure needed to push blood through. Neuroendocrine hormones, while they can indirectly influence blood pressure regulation by affecting factors like blood volume and vascular tone, are not direct final parameters that produce blood pressure.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.

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