HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
2. What is the most important action to prevent complications while caring for a client receiving enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube?
- A. Check tube placement before each feeding
- B. Flush the tube with water before and after each feeding
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
- D. Administer the feeding at room temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Checking tube placement before each feeding is crucial to prevent aspiration, a serious complication of enteral nutrition. Ensuring the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach helps avoid the risk of the feeding going into the lungs, which can lead to aspiration pneumonia. Flushing the tube with water (Choice B) is important for maintaining tube patency but is not the most critical action to prevent complications. Elevating the head of the bed (Choice C) helps reduce the risk of aspiration but is not as crucial as verifying tube placement. Administering the feeding at room temperature (Choice D) is more related to patient comfort and does not directly address the prevention of complications associated with enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.
3. Which intervention is most effective in preventing the spread of infection in a healthcare setting?
- A. Wearing gloves
- B. Using hand sanitizer
- C. Practicing hand hygiene
- D. Disinfecting surfaces
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Practicing hand hygiene is the most effective measure to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings. While wearing gloves, using hand sanitizer, and disinfecting surfaces are important infection control measures, they are not as effective as proper hand hygiene. Hand hygiene, including handwashing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand sanitizers, is crucial in preventing the transmission of pathogens from one person to another, making it the best choice among the options provided. Wearing gloves primarily protects the wearer and is not a substitute for hand hygiene. Using hand sanitizer is helpful but may not be as effective as proper handwashing. Disinfecting surfaces is important but does not address the direct transmission of pathogens through hand contact, which hand hygiene effectively prevents.
4. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Irrigate the catheter daily.
- B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
- C. Apply antibiotic ointment at the insertion site.
- D. Ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs) in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Irrigating the catheter daily (Choice A) is unnecessary and can introduce pathogens. Changing the catheter every 72 hours (Choice B) is not recommended unless clinically indicated to prevent introducing new pathogens. Applying antibiotic ointment at the insertion site (Choice C) is not the most important action to prevent CAUTIs; proper hygiene and maintaining a closed system are more critical.
5. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?
- A. 400 mg/mL
- B. 500 mg/mL
- C. 450 mg/mL
- D. 350 mg/mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.
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