HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
2. When teaching a diabetic client about foot care, what information is most important?
- A. Inspect feet daily
- B. Wear cotton socks
- C. Use lukewarm water to wash feet
- D. Cut nails straight across
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inspecting feet daily is crucial for diabetic clients as it can help prevent complications like infections and ulcers. This practice allows for early detection of any foot issues, enabling timely intervention. While wearing cotton socks (choice B) is beneficial as they absorb moisture and reduce the risk of fungal infections, it is not as critical as daily foot inspection. Using lukewarm water to wash feet (choice C) is important to prevent burns or skin damage in diabetic clients with decreased sensation, but it is not as crucial as daily foot inspection. Cutting nails straight across (choice D) is essential to prevent ingrown nails, but it is not the most important information when educating diabetic clients about foot care.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
- A. Before bedtime, at 2000
- B. After breakfast
- C. Before the evening meal
- D. After lunch
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.
5. During a manic episode, what is the most appropriate intervention to implement first for a client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Engage the client in a quiet activity
- B. Provide a structured environment with minimal stimulation
- C. Monitor the client continuously
- D. Adjust the lighting and noise levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience sensory overload and agitation. Providing a structured environment with minimal stimulation is the most appropriate initial intervention as it can help reduce overwhelming sensory input and promote a sense of calm. Engaging the client in a quiet activity (Choice A) may not be effective if the environment is still overstimulating. Continuous monitoring (Choice C) is important but may not be the first intervention needed. Adjusting lighting and noise levels (Choice D) can be helpful but may not address the core issue of sensory overload and agitation during a manic episode.
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