Nursing Elites

1. A practical nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving theophylline. Which symptom indicates that the client may be experiencing theophylline toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a common symptom of theophylline toxicity. Other symptoms that may indicate theophylline toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Bradycardia, constipation, and hypotension are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client closely for these signs of toxicity and report them promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications.

2. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed hydroxyzine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Hydroxyzine is known to cause drowsiness, so clients should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, nausea, and headache are not commonly associated with hydroxyzine use. It is crucial for the client to be aware of the potential drowsiness to ensure their safety and well-being while taking this medication.

3. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Tremors
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed risperidone, monitoring weight is crucial due to the potential side effect of weight gain associated with this medication. This side effect can be significant as it may lead to other health issues. Choice B, Tremors, is not typically associated with risperidone use. Choice C, Insomnia, is less likely to be a direct side effect of risperidone compared to weight gain. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is a possible side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not commonly associated with risperidone.

5. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?

• A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
• B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
• C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
• D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.

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