HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.
2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Headache
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bradycardia. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia due to its effect on slowing down the heart rate, which can be dangerous in a client with atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because digoxin is not known to cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.
5. Twenty-four hours after starting to take oral penicillin for strep throat, a client calls the nurse to report the onset of a rash on the chest. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately
- B. Instruct the client regarding the use of topical analgesic cream PRN
- C. Question the client about any other related symptoms
- D. Reinforce the need to take all doses of the penicillin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the client has developed a rash after starting oral penicillin, which can indicate an allergic reaction. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to discontinue the penicillin immediately. Continuing the medication can potentially lead to severe allergic reactions. Instructing about topical analgesic cream or questioning about other related symptoms may delay appropriate action in case of a severe allergic reaction. Reinforcing the need to complete all doses is not appropriate when an allergic reaction is suspected, as safety takes precedence over completing the antibiotic course.
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