HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Pancreatitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.
2. A client is receiving levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry skin
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperthermia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body with thyroid hormone. If the dosage of levothyroxine is too high, it can cause symptoms of hyperthyroidism, including weight loss. Therefore, weight gain can be a potential side effect of levothyroxine if the dosage is excessive.
3. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach
- B. The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach
- C. The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
- D. The medication can reduce the patient's constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. This barrier helps prevent stomach acid from further damaging the ulcers and promotes healing. It does not directly reduce bacteria levels, neutralize gastric acid, or have a direct effect on constipation.
4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.
5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed diazepam. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a potential side effect. It is important for clients taking diazepam to be cautious about activities that require alertness, such as driving, due to the risk of drowsiness associated with this medication. Choice B, dry mouth, is not typically associated with diazepam use. Choice C, nausea, is less common as a side effect of diazepam compared to drowsiness. Choice D, headache, is also less common and typically not a significant side effect of diazepam.
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