a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed semaglutide the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

2. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

3. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

4. What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.

5. Phenazopyridine is commonly prescribed for clients with urinary tract infections (UTI). Which statement by the practical nurse describes the purpose for the administration of phenazopyridine?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine, a urinary analgesic, is utilized to alleviate the pain associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs) like burning, pain, urgency, and frequent voiding. The administration of phenazopyridine can cause the urine to turn a bright red-orange color. It is recommended to take this medication with food to reduce gastric irritation. Phenazopyridine should only be used for a maximum of 2 days when taken alongside an antibacterial agent, which is typically prescribed for about 2 weeks to treat the underlying infection.

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