a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed semaglutide the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

2. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

4. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

5. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.

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