Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. This medication may cause drowsiness; avoid driving.
• B. This medication may take several weeks to take effect.
• C. This medication can be taken on an as-needed basis.
• D. This medication should be taken with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed and not expect immediate relief.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Hair loss
• C. Weight gain
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tremors. When a client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder, one common side effect to monitor for is tremors. Tremors are a known adverse effect of lithium therapy and should be monitored closely by healthcare providers. Choice A, dry mouth, is not typically associated with lithium use. Hair loss, as in choice B, is not a common side effect of lithium. Weight gain, as mentioned in choice C, can occur with some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, but it is not a prominent side effect of lithium specifically.

3. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.

4. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
• C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
• D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

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