HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of heart failure.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of bladder cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices B and C are important but not specific to pioglitazone use. Choice D is incorrect as bladder cancer is not a known side effect of pioglitazone.
2. A nurse is assessing an older adult client who was brought to the emergency department by his son, who reports that the client fell at home. The nurse suspects elder abuse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. File an incident report.
- B. Ask the client about his injuries with the son present.
- C. Ask the client's son to go to the waiting area.
- D. Treat and discharge the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to ask the client's son to go to the waiting area. This allows the nurse to interview the client independently to assess for signs of elder abuse without the son's potential influence. Filing an incident report may be necessary later but is not the immediate action required. Asking about injuries with the son present could lead to biased responses or intimidation. Treating and discharging the client without addressing the suspicion of elder abuse would neglect the nurse's responsibility to ensure the client's safety.
3. A 4-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administering antipyretics
- B. Administering antibiotics
- C. Monitoring fluid intake
- D. Providing nutritional support
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old child admitted with bacterial pneumonia is administering antibiotics. Antibiotics are essential to treat the infection, prevent its spread, and avoid potential complications. Administering antipyretics (Choice A) may help reduce fever but does not address the underlying cause of pneumonia, which is bacterial in this case. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice C) is important to maintain hydration but does not directly treat the infection. Providing nutritional support (Choice D) is crucial for overall health, but the immediate priority is to address the bacterial infection with antibiotics to prevent further complications and promote recovery.
4. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has been diagnosed with a stroke. Which intervention will the nurse add to the care plan?
- A. Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible.
- B. Provide assistance with a bed bath to promote patient comfort.
- C. Coordinate with physical therapy for gait training.
- D. Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest to prevent fatigue.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible. For a patient who has had a stroke, promoting independence and engaging in self-care activities help maintain mobility and foster a sense of autonomy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because providing assistance with a bed bath, coordinating with physical therapy for gait training, or advising bed rest without indications may not be the best interventions for promoting optimal recovery and independence in a stroke patient.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.