HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Determine if the medication is being taken correctly
- B. Provide instructions on managing these side effects
- C. Schedule an appointment for evaluation by the healthcare provider
- D. Advise stopping the medication until the unpleasant side effects wear off
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.
2. A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.
3. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?
- A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
- B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
- C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
- D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.
4. The healthcare provider is discharging a patient with a new prescription for ranitidine (Zantac). Which information would be important to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Thrombolytic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) may occur
- B. Aspirin should not be taken with this medication
- C. The patient may experience iron deficiency anemia
- D. The patient may experience restlessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to include information that ranitidine may cause restlessness as a side effect in some patients. Educating the patient about possible side effects helps in early recognition and management, improving medication adherence and patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not pertain to common side effects or specific considerations related to ranitidine use.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing client teaching materials on commonly used medications. Which client is most likely to benefit from a client education package about simvastatin?
- A. A 50-year-old male with a history of angina
- B. A 75-year-old male with bone cancer
- C. An 18-year-old pregnant female with diabetes
- D. A 40-year-old female with frequent vaginal infections
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Simvastatin is a medication used to lower cholesterol levels and prevent cardiovascular diseases. It is commonly prescribed for individuals at risk of heart-related conditions. Angina is a symptom of underlying heart disease, and individuals with this condition would benefit most from simvastatin to help manage their cholesterol levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular events. Therefore, the 50-year-old male with a history of angina is the most suitable candidate for client education regarding simvastatin. Choices B, C, and D are not the most appropriate candidates for simvastatin education because bone cancer, pregnancy with diabetes, and frequent vaginal infections are not conditions typically treated with simvastatin.
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