Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with angina has been prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate. Which instruction should the practical nurse reinforce in this client's teaching?

• A. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• B. Avoid getting up quickly. Always rise slowly.
• C. Take the medication with or without food.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the practical nurse should reinforce with a client prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is to avoid getting up quickly and to rise slowly. Nitrates can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. By rising slowly, the client can prevent the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension and its associated symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous, taking the medication with or without food does not impact its effectiveness, and increasing potassium intake is not directly related to the use of nitrate isosorbide dinitrate.

2. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

3. What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?

• A. Difficulty starting urination
• B. Nosebleeds
• C. Muscle cramps
• D. Visual disturbances

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Difficulty starting urination is not a common side effect of furosemide; nosebleeds and visual disturbances are not typically associated with this medication.

4. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
• C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
• D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

5. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed salmeterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is dry mouth. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta agonist used in COPD, can lead to dry mouth as a common side effect. Nurses should monitor for this side effect and advise clients to report it if it becomes bothersome.

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