HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.
2. A client with asthma is prescribed fluticasone. The nurse should instruct the client to use this medication at which time?
- A. During an asthma attack
- B. Twice a day
- C. Once a day
- D. At night before bed
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Fluticasone is a maintenance medication for asthma aimed at controlling symptoms. It should be taken once a day on a regular basis to provide ongoing relief and prevent asthma symptoms, rather than being used to treat acute asthma attacks. Therefore, the correct answer is to use it once a day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because using fluticasone during an asthma attack, twice a day, or only at night before bed does not align with the medication's purpose of being a daily maintenance therapy.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial because it may lead to non-adherence to the medication. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is a potential side effect of potassium-sparing diuretics, not ACE inhibitors like lisinopril. Hypernatremia (choice C) refers to elevated sodium levels and is not a common side effect of lisinopril. Hyponatremia (choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical side effect of lisinopril. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing the client for a dry cough when taking lisinopril.
4. A patient is prescribed sucralfate (Carafate) and asks the nurse what the purpose of taking this medication is. Which is the nurse's best response?
- A. The medication helps reduce bacteria levels in the stomach
- B. The medication helps neutralize gastric acid in the stomach
- C. The medication is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa
- D. The medication can reduce the patient's constipation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sucralfate (Carafate) is used to protect the gastrointestinal mucosa by forming a protective barrier over ulcers. This barrier helps prevent stomach acid from further damaging the ulcers and promotes healing. It does not directly reduce bacteria levels, neutralize gastric acid, or have a direct effect on constipation.
5. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?
- A. Complete blood count
- B. Family history of hypertension
- C. History of erectile dysfunction
- D. Baseline weight
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.
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