a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

2. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

3. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.

4. Which of the following components of nutrition has a primary function of helping with tissue growth and repair?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protein is the correct answer as it is essential for tissue growth and repair. Proteins are composed of amino acids, the building blocks of body tissues. While vitamins D and E have important roles in the body, they are not primarily responsible for tissue growth and repair. Fats are crucial for various bodily functions, like providing energy, but they are not the primary component involved in tissue growth and repair.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication. Prior to administering the medication, the healthcare professional uses an electronic database to gather information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. Which of the following components of critical thinking is the healthcare professional using when reviewing the medication information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Knowledge. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is utilizing knowledge by gathering and applying information about the medication. Choice B, Experience, is not the best option as the focus is on accessing information about the medication rather than personal experience. Choice C, Intuition, refers to a gut feeling or instinct, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, Competence, relates more to overall ability and proficiency rather than the specific act of seeking information.

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