Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

2. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

4. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?

• A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
• B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
• C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
• D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Tremors
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed risperidone, monitoring weight is crucial due to the potential side effect of weight gain associated with this medication. This side effect can be significant as it may lead to other health issues. Choice B, Tremors, is not typically associated with risperidone use. Choice C, Insomnia, is less likely to be a direct side effect of risperidone compared to weight gain. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is a possible side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not commonly associated with risperidone.

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