Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that she uses cranberry juice to help prevent urinary tract infection. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Ensure to drink sugar-free cranberry juice
• B. Drinking cranberry juice does not prevent infection
• C. Cranberries do not affect insulin levels
• D. Excessive cranberry juice consumption can lead to constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Drinking cranberry juice does not prevent urinary tract infections and should not be relied upon as a preventive measure. While cranberry juice is often associated with preventing UTIs, there is limited scientific evidence to support this claim. Choice A is incorrect because the sugar content in cranberry juice is not the main concern when discussing its role in preventing UTIs. Choice C is incorrect as there is no significant evidence to suggest cranberries affecting insulin levels. Choice D is incorrect as constipation is not a typical side effect of consuming cranberry juice; however, excessive consumption may lead to gastrointestinal discomfort.

2. The charge nurse is making assignments for clients on an endocrine unit. Which client is best to assign to a new graduate nurse?

• A. A female adult with hyperthyroidism who is returning to the unit after a thyroidectomy
• B. A male adult with Cushing's syndrome who reports a headache and visual disturbances
• C. An older man with Addison's disease who is diaphoretic and has hand tremors
• D. A perimenopausal woman with Graves' disease who is nervous and has exophthalmos

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A new graduate nurse can manage the care of a stable client returning from a thyroidectomy. Choice B is not suitable for a new graduate nurse as it involves complex symptoms of Cushing's syndrome that require more experience and knowledge. Choice C presents a client with acute manifestations of Addison's disease, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse. Choice D involves a client with Graves' disease experiencing nervousness and exophthalmos, which also require a higher level of expertise to manage effectively.

3. When planning to contact the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, what information is most important to report?

• A. The presence and location of any pressure ulcers.
• B. Measures already taken to maintain client safety.
• C. Any special mattresses on the client’s bed.
• D. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When reporting to the healthcare provider about a client's need for a belt restraint, it is crucial to provide information on the measures already taken to maintain client safety. This includes detailing alternative strategies that have been tried before considering restraint use. This information helps the healthcare provider assess the situation comprehensively and explore other safety interventions. Choices A, C, and D, though relevant to the client's care, are not as critical to report when discussing the need for a belt restraint. Pressure ulcers (Choice A) are important but not directly related to the need for a belt restraint. The presence of special mattresses (Choice C) may influence overall care but is not the most pertinent information when considering restraints. Current vital signs and oxygen saturation (Choice D) are essential for the client's overall assessment but do not directly address the need for a belt restraint.

4. When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?

• A. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers
• B. Fever and a high-pitched inspiratory stridor
• C. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis
• D. Cough and musical breath sounds on expiration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a client with acute asthma, a cough and wheezing or musical breath sounds on expiration are typical findings. Pursed lip breathing and clubbing of fingers (choice A) are not common in acute asthma but could be seen in chronic respiratory conditions. Fever and high-pitched inspiratory stridor (choice B) are more indicative of croup or epiglottitis. A short expiratory phase and hemoptysis (choice C) are not typical findings in acute asthma.

5. Following morning care, a client with C-5 spinal cord injury who is sitting in a wheelchair becomes flushed and complains of a headache. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Check for any kinks or obstructions in the client’s Foley tubing
• B. Assess the client’s blood pressure every 15 minutes
• C. Administer a prescribed PRN dose of hydralazine (Apresoline)
• D. Educate the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a C-5 spinal cord injury experiencing flushing and a headache, the priority intervention is to assess the client's blood pressure every 15 minutes. These symptoms could indicate autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially life-threatening condition. Assessing the blood pressure is crucial to identify and address this emergency situation promptly. Checking for kinks or obstructions in the Foley tubing (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Administering hydralazine (Choice C) without knowing the blood pressure could be harmful as it may lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Educating the client on recognizing symptoms of dysreflexia (Choice D) is important for long-term management but is not the immediate action needed in this acute situation.

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