Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?

• A. Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages
• B. Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy
• C. Prevent the formation of effusion fluid
• D. Remove fluid from the intrapleural space

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.

2. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Sedimentation rate
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Anti–CCP antibodies
• D. Activated Clotting Time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

3. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained on the client's graphic sheet
• B. Estimate the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of the client’s radial pulses
• C. Demonstrate how to palpate the popliteal pulse with the client supine and the knee flexed
• D. Document why the blood pressure cannot be accurately measured at the present time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

4. When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Compare the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure
• B. Assess the client for lightheadedness upon standing
• C. Determine if an automated blood pressure reading is consistent with the manual reading
• D. Observe for changes in blood pressure between lying and sitting positions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.

5. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

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