Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should explain to a client with lung cancer that pleurodesis is performed to achieve which expected outcome?

• A. Debulk tumor to maintain patency of air passages
• B. Relieve empyema after pneumonectomy
• C. Prevent the formation of effusion fluid
• D. Remove fluid from the intrapleural space

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pleurodesis is a procedure used to prevent the re-accumulation of pleural effusion by creating adhesion between the pleurae. This helps prevent the formation of effusion fluid. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pleurodesis is not performed to debulk tumors, relieve empyema after pneumonectomy, or remove fluid from the intrapleural space. Understanding the purpose of pleurodesis is essential in providing accurate patient education and care.

2. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain the importance of bathing or showering daily
• B. Encourage fluid intake of at least 2,000 ml daily
• C. Keep the legs covered as much as possible
• D. Apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

3. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Platelet count
• B. White blood cell count (WBC)
• C. Sodium and potassium
• D. Red blood cell count (RBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

4. After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain
• B. Measure the client’s fluid intake and output
• C. Monitor the client’s serum electrolyte levels
• D. Auscultate for bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the fistula is patent?

• A. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand
• B. The left radial pulse is 2+ bounding
• C. Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm
• D. Assessment of a bruit on the left forearm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Auscultation of a thrill on the left forearm is the correct observation indicating that the AV fistula is patent. A thrill is a palpable vibration or buzzing sensation felt over the fistula, indicating the presence of blood flow. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the patency of the fistula. Distended, tortuous veins in the left hand may indicate venous hypertension; a bounding radial pulse could suggest increased blood flow through an artery, but it does not confirm fistula patency; assessment of a bruit indicates turbulent blood flow, but it does not confirm patency.

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