Nursing Elites

1. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

2. What instruction should the nurse provide a pregnant client experiencing heartburn?

• A. Limit fluid intake between meals to prevent stomach over-distension
• B. Take an antacid at bedtime and when symptoms worsen
• C. Maintain an upright position for two hours after eating
• D. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.' Heartburn is common in pregnancy due to increased intra-abdominal pressure and hormonal changes. Consuming small, frequent meals prevents the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of acid reflux and heartburn. Choice A is incorrect because limiting fluid intake between meals may not significantly impact heartburn. Choice B is not ideal as antacids should be taken as directed by a healthcare provider, not just at bedtime or when symptoms worsen. Choice C is less effective advice, as maintaining an upright position after eating may not directly address the root cause of heartburn.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?

• A. Ask the client about soft food preferences
• B. Auscultate the client’s breath sounds
• C. Obtain and record the client’s vital signs
• D. Determine which side of the body is weak

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client’s breath sounds. Assessing breath sounds is crucial in this scenario as it helps ensure that the client can safely swallow the oral antibiotic without aspirating. Unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia indicate potential swallowing difficulties, making it essential to assess breath sounds for any signs of respiratory issues. Asking about food preferences (choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority before administering the medication. While obtaining vital signs (choice C) is important, assessing breath sounds takes precedence in this case. Determining which side of the body is weak (choice D) is not the priority assessment before administering the oral antibiotic.

4. A client with acute renal failure (ARF) is admitted for uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus and hyperkalemia. The nurse administers an IV dose of regular insulin per sliding scale. Which intervention is the most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry.
• B. Maintain venous access with an infusion of normal saline.
• C. Assess glucose levels via finger stick every 4 to 6 hours.
• D. Evaluate hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac activity is crucial in this scenario because hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Regular monitoring of the client’s cardiac activity via telemetry allows for early detection of any potential cardiac complications. Maintaining venous access with a normal saline infusion is important for hydration but does not address the immediate risk of cardiac dysrhythmias posed by hyperkalemia. Assessing glucose levels is essential in diabetes management but is not the priority when dealing with hyperkalemia-induced cardiac risks. Evaluating hourly urine output for the return of normal renal function is important in ARF but is not as urgent as monitoring the client's cardiac activity in the context of hyperkalemia.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

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