HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with diabetes mellitus is learning to self-administer insulin. Which action by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. The client rotates injection sites on the abdomen.
- B. The client draws up the insulin dose after warming the vial to room temperature.
- C. The client pinches the skin before injecting the insulin.
- D. The client injects the insulin at a 90-degree angle.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drawing up insulin after warming the vial to room temperature indicates a need for further teaching, as insulin should be at room temperature for administration. Choice A is correct as rotating injection sites helps prevent lipodystrophy. Choice C is correct as pinching the skin helps ensure proper subcutaneous injection. Choice D is correct as injecting insulin at a 90-degree angle is the recommended technique for subcutaneous injections.
2. A client is being taught how to care for their tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
- B. Clean the tracheostomy site with hydrogen peroxide daily.
- C. Change the tracheostomy tube weekly.
- D. Apply ointment around the tracheostomy site.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. Tracheostomy covers serve to protect the airway from environmental contaminants, reducing the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect because hydrogen peroxide can be irritating to the skin and is not recommended for cleaning the tracheostomy site. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes should not be routinely changed weekly unless there is a specific medical indication. Changing it without a need can introduce infection or damage the stoma. Choice D is incorrect as applying ointment around the tracheostomy site can lead to occlusion of the stoma and interfere with breathing.
3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?
- A. Temperature
- B. Menses overdue
- C. Soft tender abdomen
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.
5. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?
- A. 100% oxygen via partial rebreathing mask
- B. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
- C. 4 liters per minute via simple mask
- D. 6 liters per minute via face mask
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.
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