Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important information for the nurse to provide?

• A. You need to have regular blood tests while taking this medication.
• B. Report any muscle stiffness or unusual movements immediately.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Report any muscle stiffness or unusual movements immediately." This information is crucial because muscle stiffness or unusual movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), a potential side effect of risperidone that requires immediate attention. Choice A is less critical as regular blood tests are important but not as urgent as identifying EPS. Choice C is irrelevant as tyramine interactions are not associated with risperidone. Choice D is incorrect as weight gain is more common than weight loss with risperidone.

3. A female victim of sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels 'as though the rape just happened yesterday,' even though it has been a few months since the incident. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?

• A. You need to try to be realistic. The rape did not just occur.
• B. It will take some time to get over these feelings about your rape.
• C. Tell me more about the incident that causes you to feel like the rape just occurred.
• D. What do you think you can do to alleviate some of your fears about being raped again?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to talk about the event that makes them feel as though the rape just occurred. This approach can help the client process their feelings and experiences, which is crucial in dealing with trauma. Choice A is dismissive and negates the client's feelings, which can be harmful. Choice B, although acknowledging the time needed to heal, does not actively address the client's current feelings. Choice D shifts the focus to future fears rather than addressing the client's current emotional state.

4. A male client who has been on lithium therapy for 5 years is experiencing frequent urination and increased thirst. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess for signs of lithium toxicity.
• C. Suggest the client reduce salt intake.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent urination and increased thirst can be signs of lithium toxicity, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Assessing for signs of lithium toxicity is crucial to determine the client's condition and prevent further harm. Instructing the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) may worsen the situation by exacerbating lithium toxicity. Suggesting the client reduce salt intake (Choice C) is not the priority when signs of toxicity are present. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important, but the initial action should be to assess the client for signs of lithium toxicity to provide immediate care.

5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the nurse to provide to the wife of the client diagnosed with schizophrenia is to offer factual information. Choice B is the correct answer as it explains that schizophrenia is a mental disorder characterized by a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking. This response provides a simple and accurate explanation of the condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the wife's question about what schizophrenia is. Choice A focuses on emotional support rather than providing information about the disorder. Choice C gives false reassurance without addressing the nature of schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the question by suggesting the wife speak to the psychologist, missing an opportunity to educate and support the family member.

Similar Questions