Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
• B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
• C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
• D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.

2. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

3. A client with borderline personality disorder tells the nurse, 'You're the only one who understands me. The other nurses don't care about me.' Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Why do you feel that way about the other nurses?
• B. The other nurses care about you too.
• C. I am here to help you just like the other nurses.
• D. Let's talk about why you feel this way.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate response is 'I am here to help you just like the other nurses' (C). This response sets boundaries and avoids reinforcing the client's splitting behavior, which is common in borderline personality disorder. Choices A and D may unintentionally reinforce the splitting by focusing on the negative perception of other nurses. Choice B might be perceived as dismissive because it contradicts the client's feelings of being understood only by the nurse.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Stay with the client and remain calm.
• B. Encourage the client to express their feelings.
• C. Teach the client deep-breathing exercises.
• D. Administer prescribed anti-anxiety medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority intervention is to stay with the client and remain calm (A). This provides immediate support and reassurance. Encouraging the client to express their feelings (B) and teaching deep-breathing exercises (C) are important but should come after ensuring the client's immediate safety and comfort. Administering medication (D) might be necessary, but the nurse should first focus on providing a calming presence to help the client feel safe and supported during the panic attack.

5. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

• A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
• B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
• C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
• D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.

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