HESI RN
Mental Health HESI Quizlet
1. During an annual physical at a corporate clinic, a male employee tells the nurse that his high-stress job is causing trouble in his personal life. He further explains that he often gets so angry while driving to and from work that he has considered “getting even” with other drivers. How should the nurse respond?
- A. “Anger is contagious and could result in a major confrontation.”
- B. “Try not to let your anger cause you to act impulsively.”
- C. “Expressing your anger to a stranger could result in an unsafe situation.”
- D. “It sounds as if there are many situations that make you feel angry.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to manage their anger and avoid impulsive actions, as stated in choice B. This approach helps the individual recognize the potential consequences of acting on their anger impulsively. Choice A is not the best response because it focuses on the contagious nature of anger rather than addressing the individual's behavior. Choice C is incorrect as it only highlights the potential dangers of expressing anger to a stranger without providing guidance on managing the underlying issue. Choice D acknowledges the client's feelings but does not offer practical advice on how to address the anger and potential impulsive actions.
2. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
- A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
- B. Isolate the client from other clients.
- C. Administer a PRN sedative.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.
3. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?
- A. Sore throat
- B. Weight loss
- C. Constipation
- D. Lightheadedness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.
4. During a group session on anger management, a male adolescent client is fidgety, interrupts peers, and talks about his pets at home. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Allow the client to leave and return in 10 minutes.
- B. Explore the client’s feelings about his pets and home life.
- C. Encourage his peers to help involve him in the activity.
- D. Redirect him by encouraging him to read from the handout.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best nursing action in this scenario is to redirect the client by encouraging him to read from the handout. This approach helps refocus the client's attention on the topic being discussed, which is anger management. Choice A is not appropriate as it may disrupt the group session and does not address the client's behavior. Choice B, while important in understanding the client's background, does not address the immediate disruptive behavior. Choice C involves others to manage the client's behavior instead of direct intervention by the nurse, which may not be effective in this situation.
5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
- B. Hold the medication and refrain from administering additional amounts of the drug.
- C. Record the symptoms as potential signs of lithium toxicity and hold further medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms for evaluation before the next administration of the drug.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness in a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder may indicate lithium toxicity. The nurse should promptly notify the healthcare provider to ensure immediate medical intervention. The correct action is to prepare for the administration of an antidote if necessary. Holding the medication (Choice B) without immediate intervention could delay necessary treatment. Recording the symptoms as potential signs of lithium toxicity (Choice C) is more appropriate than considering them as normal side effects but does not emphasize the urgency of immediate action. Notifying the healthcare provider before the next administration of the drug (Choice D) may delay urgent intervention required for lithium toxicity.
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