Nursing Elites

1. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

2. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Ask, 'Tell me what I can do to help you overcome your fear of giving yourself injections.'
• B. Instruct, 'You need to learn how to give yourself insulin injections immediately.'
• C. State, 'Insulin injections are important for managing your diabetes, so you must learn them.'
• D. Mention, 'Many people with diabetes manage well with insulin injections.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Asking the client what can be done to help overcome the fear of self-injections demonstrates empathy, understanding, and a willingness to support the client in addressing their barriers. This approach facilitates open communication, acknowledges the client's feelings, and involves them in the decision-making process. Choices B and C are authoritarian and may increase resistance in the client by being directive and not considering the client's perspective. Choice D, while positive, does not directly address the client's fear and resistance to self-injections, missing the opportunity to explore the underlying issues.

5. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

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