Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

3. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the most important instruction the practical nurse (PN) should provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid taking folic acid supplements.
• C. Report any signs of infection immediately.
• D. Increase intake of vitamin C-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: The most important instruction for a client taking methotrexate is to report any signs of infection immediately. Methotrexate can suppress the immune system, making the client more susceptible to infections. Early detection and treatment of infections are crucial to prevent complications. Instructing the client to be vigilant for signs of infection empowers them to take prompt action, enhancing their overall safety and well-being.

4. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

5. A client diagnosed with angina has been prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate. Which instruction should the practical nurse reinforce in this client's teaching?

• A. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• B. Avoid getting up quickly. Always rise slowly.
• C. Take the medication with or without food.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction that the practical nurse should reinforce with a client prescribed nitrate isosorbide dinitrate is to avoid getting up quickly and to rise slowly. Nitrates can cause orthostatic hypotension, a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. By rising slowly, the client can prevent the occurrence of orthostatic hypotension and its associated symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be dangerous, taking the medication with or without food does not impact its effectiveness, and increasing potassium intake is not directly related to the use of nitrate isosorbide dinitrate.

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