HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Hypersalivation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.
2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed etanercept for rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Rotate injection sites to prevent irritation.
- B. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset.
- C. Avoid sunlight exposure while on this medication.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of any signs of infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed etanercept is to rotate injection sites to prevent irritation and ensure proper absorption. Changing sites will help prevent skin irritation and ensure that the medication is absorbed effectively. This practice also reduces the risk of injection site reactions and discomfort. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote optimal medication delivery and minimize adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect because etanercept can be taken with or without food, and it is not specifically indicated to be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific association between etanercept and sunlight exposure. Choice D is incorrect because while it is important to notify the healthcare provider of signs of infection, this is not the primary instruction related to the administration of etanercept.
3. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Tremors
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed risperidone, monitoring weight is crucial due to the potential side effect of weight gain associated with this medication. This side effect can be significant as it may lead to other health issues. Choice B, Tremors, is not typically associated with risperidone use. Choice C, Insomnia, is less likely to be a direct side effect of risperidone compared to weight gain. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is a possible side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not commonly associated with risperidone.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. 5-10 minutes before meals
- B. 15 minutes after meals
- C. 30 minutes before meals
- D. 1 hour after meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.
5. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access