Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.

3. A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Acute renal failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Digoxin, a medication commonly prescribed for heart failure, can lead to bradycardia, characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect early on to prevent complications such as arrhythmias or decreased cardiac output. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hypertension (choice C) and hypotension (choice D) are also not common side effects of digoxin.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.

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