Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of lactic acidosis to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, which are common with this medication. Choice B, avoiding alcohol, is a good practice due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis when alcohol is consumed with metformin; however, it is not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Taking metformin on an empty stomach (Choice C) is incorrect because it can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Reporting signs of lactic acidosis (Choice D) is important, but it is more related to monitoring for adverse effects rather than a primary teaching point for administration.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

• A. I have not had as many spells of angina.
• B. I have not had as much swelling in my ankles lately.
• C. My doctor told me my cholesterol levels were improving with each visit.
• D. I do not notice as many irregular heartbeats as before I started taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

4. A client is prescribed atorvastatin. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Muscle pain and weakness
• B. Headache
• C. Hepatotoxicity
• D. Gastrointestinal bleeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Muscle pain and weakness. Atorvastatin is known to potentially cause muscle pain and weakness, which could indicate muscle damage or rhabdomyolysis. This adverse effect should be closely monitored by the practical nurse to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin use. Headache is a less common side effect, hepatotoxicity is rare but serious, and gastrointestinal bleeding is not a common adverse effect of atorvastatin.

5. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

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