Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

2. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

3. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hair loss
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. This weight gain can increase the risk of metabolic issues such as diabetes and dyslipidemia. Monitoring the client's weight regularly is essential to detect and address any weight changes promptly.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.

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