Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

2. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient with short-term persistent diarrhea. Which class of medication would the nurse anticipate giving?

• A. Lubricants
• B. Probiotics
• C. Adsorbents
• D. Anticholinergics

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Probiotics are the correct choice in this scenario as they help restore normal gut flora, which can be effective in treating diarrhea by promoting a healthy balance of bacteria in the intestines. Lubricants are used to ease bowel movements and are not indicated for treating diarrhea. Adsorbents work by binding to toxins in the gut, which is not the primary mechanism needed for treating diarrhea. Anticholinergics are more commonly used for conditions like overactive bladder and not for short-term persistent diarrhea.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?

• A. I have not had as many spells of angina.
• B. I have not had as much swelling in my ankles lately.
• C. My doctor told me my cholesterol levels were improving with each visit.
• D. I do not notice as many irregular heartbeats as before I started taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is option D. The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats since it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. This drug's main purpose is to control irregular heart rhythms, so a decrease in irregular heartbeats indicates its effectiveness. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because amiodarone is not primarily used to address angina, ankle swelling, or cholesterol levels, so improvements in these areas do not directly reflect the drug's effectiveness.

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