HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.
2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?
- A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
- D. Take this medication at bedtime.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.
3. A client diagnosed with a sinus infection is prescribed ampicillin sodium. The practical nurse (PN) should instruct the client to notify the healthcare provider immediately if which symptom occurs?
- A. Rash
- B. Nausea
- C. Headache
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A - Rash. Rash is the most common adverse side effect of all generations of penicillin, indicating an allergy to the medication. An allergic reaction could lead to anaphylactic shock, a severe and potentially life-threatening emergency. It is crucial for the client to inform the healthcare provider promptly if a rash develops after taking ampicillin sodium.
4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Bone marrow suppression
- C. Hair loss
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.
5. While a client is receiving the medication haloperidol, which client data would indicate to the practical nurse that the medication is therapeutic?
- A. The client has maintained consistent weight loss of 2 pounds per week.
- B. The client has demonstrated a decrease in paranoid behaviors.
- C. The client's blood pressure has remained within normal limits.
- D. The client's fasting blood glucose has remained below 120 mg/dL.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is taking haloperidol, a therapeutic response involves a decrease in symptoms such as paranoia, hallucinations, delusions, and emotional excitement. These improvements indicate that the medication is effectively managing the client's condition. Monitoring for a reduction in paranoid behaviors helps the practical nurse assess the medication's effectiveness in addressing the client's psychiatric symptoms.
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