Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

2. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. What is the most important action for the PN to take before administering this medication?

• A. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's platelet count.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output.
• D. Review the client's blood glucose level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's platelet count. Enoxaparin can lead to thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, assessing the platelet count before administering enoxaparin is crucial to ensure that it is within a safe range. Assessing the client's blood pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to enoxaparin administration. Monitoring urine output (Choice C) and reviewing blood glucose levels (Choice D) are not essential actions before administering enoxaparin.

3. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

5. A client with asthma is receiving long-term glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse includes a risk for impaired skin integrity on the client's problem list. What is the rationale for including this problem?

• A. Abnormal fat deposits impair circulation
• B. Frequent diarrhea can lead to skin issues
• C. Thinned skin bruises easily
• D. Decreased serum glucose prolongs healing time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Glucocorticoids can cause skin thinning, which increases the likelihood of bruising. Thinning of the skin due to glucocorticoid therapy makes it more fragile and prone to injury, such as bruising, even with minimal trauma. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because abnormal fat deposits impairing circulation, frequent diarrhea causing skin issues, and decreased serum glucose prolonging healing time are not direct effects of glucocorticoid therapy on skin integrity.

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