HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.
2. An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?
- A. Take the tablet with a daily multivitamin
- B. Crush the tablet and mix it with pudding
- C. Bedtime is the best time to take the tablet
- D. Wait 2 hours after meals to take the tablet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.
3. When should a client receiving insulin lispro administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. Before sleep
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered shortly before meals. This timing helps to synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing blood glucose levels in the body.
4. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Sucralfate
- C. Digoxin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
5. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?
- A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
- B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
- C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
- D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.
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