HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Nausea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.
2. A Native American client is admitted with a diagnosis of psychosis not otherwise specified. The client's family seems to regard the client's hallucinations as normal. What assessment can be made?
- A. The client's family regards the hallucinations from a cultural context
- B. The client will benefit from a talking circle
- C. The client will need a medicine man
- D. The client will need a single room
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because the family may interpret the client's hallucinations through their cultural lens, potentially viewing them as normal or spiritually significant. Understanding and acknowledging the cultural context is essential for providing culturally sensitive care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while talking circles and seeking guidance from a medicine man may be culturally relevant interventions in some contexts, the priority in this situation is to recognize and respect the family's perspective on the client's hallucinations.
3. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:
- A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
- B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
- C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
- D. None of the above
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.
4. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to administer medication to a child. What should the nurse do to ensure the correct dosage?
- A. Check the child's weight
- B. Verify the medication order with a pharmacist
- C. Consult the child's parents
- D. Double-check the dosage calculations with another nurse
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering medication to children, it is crucial to ensure the correct dosage to prevent dosing errors. Double-checking the dosage calculations with another nurse can help verify the accuracy of the prescribed dose, reducing the risk of medication errors. While checking the child's weight (Choice A) is important for dosage calculation, it alone may not ensure the correctness of the dosage. Verifying the medication order with a pharmacist (Choice B) is essential, but it may not directly address the accuracy of dosage calculations. Consulting the child's parents (Choice C) is not a standard practice for verifying medication dosages and should not be solely relied upon for ensuring the correct dosage.
5. A primigravida is being monitored at the prenatal clinic for preeclampsia. Which finding is of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Blood pressure (BP) increased to 138/86 mm Hg.
- B. Weight gain of 0.5 kg during the past 2 weeks.
- C. Dipstick value of 3+ for protein in her urine.
- D. Pitting pedal edema at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Proteinuria, indicated by a dipstick value of 3+ in the urine, is a significant concern in a patient being monitored for preeclampsia. Proteinuria is a key diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, and a value of 3+ signifies a substantial amount of protein in the urine, warranting further evaluation. While an increase in blood pressure to 138/86 mm Hg is slightly elevated, it does not meet the diagnostic threshold for severe hypertension in preeclampsia. A weight gain of 0.5 kg over 2 weeks is within normal limits and not as concerning as significant rapid weight gain. Pitting pedal edema, though common in pregnancy, is not a specific indicator of preeclampsia and is considered a less concerning finding compared to significant proteinuria.