Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Nausea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Albuterol, a bronchodilator commonly used in COPD, can cause tachycardia as a potential side effect due to its beta-agonist properties that can stimulate the heart. Nausea (Choice B), dry mouth (Choice C), and weight gain (Choice D) are less likely associated with albuterol use. Nausea and dry mouth are not common side effects of albuterol, and weight gain is not typically linked to its use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for tachycardia when a client is prescribed albuterol for COPD.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

3. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

• A. Enuresis
• B. Lethargy
• C. Depression
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

4. A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction by the practical nurse (PN) is correct?

• A. Take the medication in the morning before getting out of bed.
• B. Do not take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow.
• C. Expect some vision changes due to the medication.
• D. Increase intake of foods rich in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is not to take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow. Digoxin can affect the heart rhythm, so it is crucial to monitor the pulse rate. In case of irregular or slow heartbeats, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be consulted. This step is necessary to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin in the morning before getting out of bed is not a specific requirement. Vision changes are not a common side effect of digoxin. While digoxin can affect potassium levels, it is not advised to increase potassium intake without healthcare provider guidance.

5. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?

• A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
• B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
• C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
• D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.

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