HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, headache, and nausea are not typically associated with apixaban use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring for signs of bleeding in a client prescribed apixaban.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin glargine. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?
- A. Before meals
- B. After meals
- C. At bedtime
- D. In the morning
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that provides a consistent level of insulin over 24 hours. Administering it at bedtime helps mimic the body's natural insulin secretion pattern and provides optimal blood glucose control during the night and throughout the day. Choice A (Before meals) is incorrect because insulin glargine is not a rapid-acting insulin meant to cover meals. Choice B (After meals) is incorrect as the timing doesn't align with the insulin's mechanism. Choice D (In the morning) is incorrect as administering insulin glargine in the morning may not provide adequate coverage throughout the night and the following day.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Dizziness
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed clonidine, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia as a potential side effect. Clonidine can lead to a decrease in heart rate, thus causing bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect.
4. A client admitted with shortness of breath and palpitations currently takes an antiarrhythmic medication, dronedarone. Which action should the nurse take to prevent arrhythmias?
- A. Measure orthostatic blood pressure
- B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG reading daily
- C. Assess the client's apical pulse daily
- D. Provide continuous ECG monitoring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent arrhythmias in a client taking an antiarrhythmic medication like dronedarone is to provide continuous ECG monitoring. This is essential because antiarrhythmic drugs can sometimes cause pro-arrhythmic effects, which may lead to dangerous heart rhythm disturbances. Continuous ECG monitoring allows for real-time detection of any abnormal rhythms, enabling prompt intervention. Measuring orthostatic blood pressure, obtaining a 12-lead ECG reading daily, and assessing the client's apical pulse daily are important assessments in general patient care but may not specifically prevent arrhythmias in this scenario.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
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