HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa, used to treat anemia in chronic kidney disease, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication stimulates red blood cell production, which can increase blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure regularly is crucial to detect and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyperglycemia are not commonly associated with darbepoetin alfa therapy in chronic kidney disease.
2. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effectiveness of metaproterenol for how do you know it's been effective?
- A. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
- B. Decreased white blood cell count
- C. Decreased wheezing upon auscultation
- D. Decreased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The effectiveness of metaproterenol, a bronchodilator, is assessed by a decrease in wheezing upon auscultation. Wheezing indicates airway constriction, and a reduction in wheezing signifies improved airflow and bronchodilation due to the medication's action. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the expected outcome of metaproterenol therapy.
3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed fluvoxamine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Fluvoxamine is known to cause drowsiness as a potential side effect. Patients should be advised to avoid activities like driving that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are potential side effects of other medications used for anxiety disorders but are not typically associated with fluvoxamine.
4. When administering medications to a group of clients, which client should the nurse closely monitor for the development of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
- A. Lorazepam
- B. Sucralfate
- C. Digoxin
- D. Vancomycin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Vancomycin is known to be nephrotoxic, which means it can cause damage to the kidneys. Therefore, clients receiving Vancomycin should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of acute kidney injury (AKI) to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary. Lorazepam, Sucralfate, and Digoxin do not typically cause acute kidney injury, so they are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.
5. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?
- A. Serum hepatic enzymes
- B. Fingerstick glucose
- C. Stool color and character
- D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.
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