HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. The nurse is assessing a 3-month-old infant who had a pylorotomy yesterday. This child should be medicated for pain based on which finding?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Clenched Fist
- C. Increased pulse rate
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In infants, restlessness can be a significant indicator of discomfort or pain, necessitating appropriate pain management. While choices B, C, and D can also be associated with pain, restlessness is a more general and reliable indicator in this scenario. A clenched fist might indicate pain or distress, but it is not as specific as restlessness in assessing pain in infants. Increased pulse rate and respiratory rate can be influenced by various factors other than pain, making them less reliable indicators of pain in this context.
2. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
3. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient with tetanus?
- A. Open window shades to provide natural light
- B. Encourage coughing and deep breathing
- C. Minimize the amount of stimuli in the room
- D. Reposition from side to side every hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with tetanus is to minimize the amount of stimuli in the room. Tetanus can lead to muscle spasms and heightened sensitivity to stimuli, making it essential to reduce environmental triggers for the patient's comfort and safety. Opening window shades for natural light (Choice A) may exacerbate sensitivity to light and worsen symptoms. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing (Choice B) is not directly related to managing tetanus symptoms. While repositioning the patient every hour (Choice D) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, it is not the priority when managing tetanus, which requires a quiet, low-stimulus environment to minimize muscle spasms and discomfort.
4. A client with intestinal obstructions has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction and is receiving an IV of lactated Ringer’s at 100 ml/H. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Gastric output of 900 mL in the last 24 hours
- B. Serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI)
- C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
- D. 24-hour intake at the current infusion rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial finding to report to the healthcare provider in this scenario is a serum potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L. Hypokalemia can lead to serious complications, including cardiac issues. Gastric output, increased BUN, and monitoring the 24-hour intake are essential but do not pose an immediate risk as hypokalemia does in this situation.
5. A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?
- A. Topical corticosteroid
- B. Topical scabicide
- C. Topical alcohol rub
- D. Transdermal analgesic
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.
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