Nursing Elites

1. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.

2. The healthcare provider notes that a client has a new prescription for 20 mEq of potassium. The IV site is inflamed but not tender, and has a blood flashback. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Obtain a liter of normal saline with 20 mEq of KCl
• B. Contact the healthcare provider to clarify the prescription
• C. Withhold the prescription medication until a new IV is started
• D. Fax the prescription to the pharmacy for immediate dispensing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare provider should contact the prescriber to clarify the prescription because an inflamed IV site may indicate potential issues with administering the medication. It is important to ensure that the prescription is appropriate and safe for the client before proceeding with administration. Option A is incorrect because administering potassium through an inflamed IV site can lead to further complications. Option C is not the best course of action as clarifying the prescription first is essential. Option D is also incorrect as the focus should be on ensuring the safety of the client before dispensing the medication.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Kidney stones
• D. Bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.

4. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce which instruction regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
• B. Take the medication immediately after a meal.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Crush the medication and mix it with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate is to take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast. This timing is crucial to ensure proper absorption in the body and reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Taking it immediately after a meal or lying down for 30 minutes after may affect absorption and increase the risk of adverse effects. It should not be crushed or mixed with food to maintain its effectiveness.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.

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