Nursing Elites

1. A client with an exacerbation of asthma is prescribed albuterol. The nurse should assess the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tremors
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Insomnia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tremors. Albuterol, a beta-agonist medication commonly used to treat asthma exacerbations, can lead to tremors as a side effect. Tremors result from the stimulation of beta-2 receptors in muscles, particularly in the hands. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) are generally not common side effects of albuterol. Insomnia (Choice C) is less likely to occur with albuterol, as it is a stimulant and can cause alertness rather than sleep disturbances. Dry mouth (Choice D) is not a typical side effect associated with albuterol use.

2. A client is prescribed an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client to ensure the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Increase fluid intake.
• C. Complete the full course of the medication.
• D. Avoid dairy products.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should instruct the client to complete the full course of the antibiotic to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent the development of antibiotic resistance. Completing the full course of antibiotics helps to eradicate the infection completely and reduces the risk of bacteria developing resistance to the medication. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to ensuring the effectiveness of the antibiotic. While taking medication with food or increasing fluid intake can be beneficial in general, the crucial instruction in this case is to complete the full course of the antibiotic.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Constipation
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

5. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Headache
• C. Muscle cramping
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

Similar Questions