Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sucroferric oxyhydroxide. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Constipation
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sucroferric oxyhydroxide is known to cause diarrhea as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of diarrhea while on this medication to ensure timely intervention and management.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Pulmonary toxicity
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Thyroid dysfunction
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

5. The nurse is preparing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which medication should the nurse review with the client to manage this?

• A. Guaifenesin
• B. Prednisone
• C. Salmeterol
• D. Tiotropium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tiotropium is commonly used for COPD management.

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