Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

2. Which action should be taken to assess for analgesic tolerance in a client who is unable to communicate?

• A. Review the client's laboratory values for changes in peak and trough levels of the analgesic
• B. Prolong the interval between analgesic medication doses and monitor the client's vital signs
• C. Observe the client for the presence of pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose is due
• D. Ask family members to report behaviors suggesting that the client's pain has returned

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients who are unable to communicate, observing for pain behaviors is crucial in assessing analgesic tolerance. Changes in pain behaviors can indicate if the current analgesic regimen is effective or if tolerance has developed. Therefore, closely observing the client for pain behaviors before the next analgesic dose helps healthcare providers evaluate the client's response to pain management. Reviewing laboratory values may not directly reflect analgesic tolerance. Prolonging the interval between doses and monitoring vital signs may not provide direct information on analgesic tolerance. Relying solely on family members to report pain behaviors may not be as accurate or immediate as observing the client directly.

3. A client with epilepsy is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Skin rash
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed lamotrigine, the nurse should closely monitor for the potential side effect of skin rash. Lamotrigine is known to cause skin rashes, which can be mild or severe, indicating a serious adverse reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for skin rash is crucial to detect any signs of severe allergic reactions early and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as drowsiness, nausea and vomiting, and dizziness are not typically associated with lamotrigine use. While dizziness can be a side effect of some antiepileptic medications, it is not a common side effect of lamotrigine.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed lanthanum carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lanthanum carbonate is prescribed in chronic kidney disease to bind dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract. This action can lead to decreased phosphorus absorption and potential hypercalcemia due to the increased serum calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, such as confusion, fatigue, and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as lanthanum carbonate's mechanism of action does not lead to hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

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