HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Blood culture
- C. Sputum culture
- D. PPD intradermal test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.
2. What is usually the first contact between community members and other levels of health facilities called?
- A. Secondary level health care
- B. Primary health care
- C. Tertiary level care
- D. Intermediate level care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Primary health care. Primary health care is the initial point of contact between community members and the healthcare system. This level of care focuses on preventive and primary treatment services. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because secondary, tertiary, and intermediate care levels are more specialized and are usually accessed after primary care, depending on the complexity of the health issue.
3. A community that uses the resources of a neighborhood church to provide a latchkey children program, to sponsor prayer/support groups for people who are ill, and to grow a community health garden that sends vegetables to elderly shut-ins is engaged in what kind of activity?
- A. disease prevention
- B. health protection
- C. risk management
- D. health balance
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the community activities described focus on supporting and promoting overall well-being, which aligns with the concept of health protection. Choice A, disease prevention, is incorrect as the activities are more about supporting health rather than preventing specific diseases. Choice C, risk management, does not fit as the activities are not primarily about managing risks. Choice D, health balance, is not the most appropriate choice as the activities are aimed at protecting and enhancing health rather than achieving a balance.
4. The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Non-intention tremors and urgency with voiding
- B. Echolalia and a shuffling gait
- C. Muscle spasm and a bent-over posture
- D. Intention tremor and jerky movement of the elbows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.
5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Leukopenia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.
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