HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Blood culture
- C. Sputum culture
- D. PPD intradermal test
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.
2. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?
- A. BSN, RN
- B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
- C. Master's in public health
- D. all of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.
3. On admission to the psychiatric unit, the client is trembling and appears fearful. The nurse’s initial response should be to
- A. Give the client orientation materials and review the unit rules and regulations
- B. Introduce oneself and accompany the client to their room
- C. Take the client to the day room and introduce them to the other clients
- D. Ask the nursing assistant to get the client’s vital signs and complete the admission search
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where a client is trembling and fearful upon admission to a psychiatric unit, it is essential to prioritize building trust and reducing anxiety. By introducing oneself and accompanying the client to their room, the nurse can establish a therapeutic relationship, provide a sense of security, and address the client's immediate emotional needs. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate initial responses as they do not directly address the client's emotional state or focus on establishing a supportive relationship.
4. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?
- A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
- B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
- C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
- D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.
5. An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:
- A. primary prevention
- B. secondary prevention
- C. tertiary prevention
- D. health education
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.
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