Nursing Elites

1. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Blood culture
• C. Sputum culture
• D. PPD intradermal test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

3. What is an important basis in preparing the family health care plan?

• A. Needs and problems gathered and recognized by the nurse herself
• B. Data gathered from the health center
• C. Needs and problems as seen and accepted by the family
• D. Needs as expected by the midwife assigned in the area where the family resides

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In preparing a family health care plan, it is crucial to consider the needs and problems as perceived and accepted by the family members themselves. This ensures that the plan aligns with the family's beliefs, values, and preferences, leading to better acceptance and adherence. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the active involvement and acceptance of the family in recognizing their needs and problems are essential for effective health care planning.

4. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?

• A. Double the birth weight
• B. Triple the birth weight
• C. Gain 6 ounces each week
• D. Add 2 pounds each month

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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