Nursing Elites

1. To individualize care for a client and ensure maximum participation in that care, what should the nurse consider as the most important factor in planning the said care?

• A. environment
• B. educational attainment
• C. health beliefs and practices
• D. health status

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: health beliefs and practices. Health beliefs and practices directly influence a client's willingness and ability to participate in care. Understanding a client's health beliefs and practices helps the nurse tailor the care plan to align with the client's values and preferences. Choice A, environment, though important, may not be the most critical factor in individualizing care. Choice B, educational attainment, is relevant but not as significant as understanding the client's health beliefs and practices. Choice D, health status, is essential but does not address the individualization of care and maximizing participation as directly as health beliefs and practices.

2. A public health nurse can say that she is beginning to achieve her goal of more optimal health for her community when:

• A. people learn self-care
• B. people become involved in determining health care policy
• C. all these indicators are present
• D. people assume responsibility for their own health

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Achieving optimal health for a community involves multiple factors and indicators. For a public health nurse to begin achieving this goal, it is essential that all relevant indicators are present, not just one or a few. While choices A, B, and D are important components of promoting community health, optimal health for a community encompasses a comprehensive approach where all indicators are considered and addressed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

3. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

4. The family health care plan includes the following listed in sequence:

• A. objective, statement of the problem, intervention, and evaluation
• B. objectives, intervention, evaluation, and statement of the problem
• C. evaluation, statement of the problems, objectives, and interventions
• D. statement of the problems, objectives, intervention, and evaluation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a family health care plan, the correct sequence should start with identifying the problems (statement of the problems), setting objectives, planning interventions, and then evaluating the outcomes. This sequence ensures a logical and structured approach to healthcare planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not follow the logical order of healthcare planning steps.

5. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

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