Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Gingival hyperplasia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

2. An example of individual influences on health status would be:

• A. Cigarette smoking
• B. A parent with adult-onset diabetes
• C. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D' because all the listed factors - cigarette smoking, a parent with adult-onset diabetes, and exposure to toxic substances in the workplace - can individually influence a person's health status. Cigarette smoking directly impacts health by increasing the risk of various diseases. Having a parent with adult-onset diabetes can also influence one's health due to genetic predisposition and lifestyle factors. Exposure to toxic substances in the workplace can lead to health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not mutually exclusive but rather represent different aspects of individual influences on health status, making 'D' the most comprehensive and accurate answer.

3. Which topic should the nurse include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents?

• A. Risk factors for heart disease.
• B. Dietary management of obesity.
• C. Suicide risks and prevention.
• D. Coping with stressful situations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct topic that the nurse should include in planning a primary prevention class for adolescents is suicide risks and prevention. Adolescents are particularly vulnerable to mental health issues, including suicidal ideation. Educating them about suicide risks and prevention strategies is crucial for early intervention and support. Choices A, B, and D are important topics, but when considering primary prevention for adolescents, addressing suicide risks and prevention takes precedence due to its immediate life-saving implications.

4. In terms of CHN practice, how is the nurse in the community trained?

• A. nurse-midwife
• B. practice nursing
• C. generalist in nursing
• D. midwife

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In community health nursing practice, nurses are trained as generalists in nursing. They receive education that equips them to address a wide range of health concerns in the community. Choice A, nurse-midwife, is incorrect as it refers to a specific role focusing on childbirth and maternal health. Choice B, practice nursing, is vague and does not specifically describe the training of community health nurses. Choice D, midwife, is also incorrect as it refers to a specialized role in maternal and newborn care, different from the generalist training of community health nurses.

5. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:

• A. 2-4 hours
• B. 4-6 hours
• C. 6-12 hours
• D. 12-24 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.

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