Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Gingival hyperplasia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

2. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.

3. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

• A. Let’s move on to a new action that deals with the problem.
• B. I think you need to reserve judgment until after all suggestions are offered.
• C. Very well thought out. Your analytic skills and interest are incredible.
• D. Let’s move to the ‘what if…’ as related to these objections for an exploration of spin-off ideas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

4. When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?

• A. Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.
• B. Ineffective coping related to depression and dysfunction due to disease progression.
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness.
• D. Fear related to constant possibility of experiencing seizures.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.

5. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

Similar Questions