HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Gingival hyperplasia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.
2. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Anemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.
3. You attended a home delivery with the Rural Health midwife. The newborn is premature. Which of the following should be included in premature infant care at home?
- A. establishing and maintaining good respiration
- B. proper management of feeding
- C. minimum handling of the baby
- D. regulation of body temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Regulation of body temperature is crucial for the survival of a premature infant. Premature infants have difficulty regulating their body temperature, making it essential to keep them warm. While establishing and maintaining good respiration and proper feeding management are important aspects of infant care, they are not as critical as regulating body temperature for premature infants. Additionally, while minimizing handling to reduce stress can be beneficial, it is not as vital as temperature regulation for premature infants.
4. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. The nurse knows that the client's risk for withdrawal symptoms is greatest within:
- A. 2-4 hours
- B. 4-6 hours
- C. 6-12 hours
- D. 12-24 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12-24 hours. Withdrawal symptoms typically begin within 12-24 hours after the last drink. This period is when the client is at the highest risk for experiencing withdrawal symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the typical timeline for alcohol withdrawal symptoms to manifest. Symptoms usually peak within the first 24 to 48 hours after the last drink, making the 12-24 hour window critical for monitoring and managing any potential withdrawal complications.
5. The increasing number of people who must learn to live with chronic illness in the community implies the need for the PHN to plan and implement a program on:
- A. communicable disease control
- B. health education
- C. child survival
- D. environmental education
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: health education. Health education is crucial for individuals dealing with chronic illnesses as it helps them learn how to manage their conditions effectively. Communicable disease control (choice A) focuses on preventing the spread of infectious diseases, which is not directly related to managing chronic conditions. Child survival (choice C) pertains to initiatives aimed at reducing child mortality rates, which is not directly related to addressing chronic illnesses. Environmental education (choice D) involves raising awareness about environmental issues, which is also not directly related to helping individuals live with chronic illnesses.
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