a client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin dilantin the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Nursing Elites

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Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023

1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

2. The hospital is planning to downsize and eliminate a number of staff positions as a cost-saving measure. To assist staff in this change process, the nurse manager is preparing for the "unfreezing" phase of change. With this approach and phase the nurse manager should

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The "unfreezing" phase involves preparing staff for change by explaining the necessity and benefits of the change, helping them to understand and accept it.

3. A client has been admitted for meningitis. In reviewing the laboratory analysis of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the nurse would expect to note

Correct answer: A

Rationale: High protein levels in the cerebrospinal fluid are indicative of bacterial meningitis, as the presence of bacteria in the CSF leads to increased protein production. Elevated protein levels can be seen in inflammatory conditions like meningitis. Choice B, clear color, is not expected in meningitis as it is typically associated with cloudy or turbid CSF. Elevated sed rate (choice C) and increased glucose (choice D) are not typically associated with the laboratory findings seen in meningitis.

4. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

5. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

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