Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Gingival hyperplasia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

2. A client with a fractured femur is in Buck's traction. The nurse should assess for which of the following complications?

• A. Foot drop
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Foot drop is a potential complication of prolonged immobility and improper positioning in traction. In Buck's traction, the lower extremity is suspended to immobilize and align the fractured femur. Prolonged suspension of the leg in traction can lead to nerve damage, specifically to the common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop. Urinary retention, constipation, and muscle spasms are not directly associated with Buck's traction and a fractured femur.

3. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to

• A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
• C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
• D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.

4. A child and his family were exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis about 2 months ago. To confirm the presence or absence of an infection, it is most important for all family members to have a

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Blood culture
• C. Sputum culture
• D. PPD intradermal test

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The PPD (purified protein derivative) intradermal test is the standard screening method for detecting tuberculosis infection. It helps identify individuals who have been infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A chest x-ray (Choice A) is used to assess the extent of active disease, not for screening purposes. Blood culture (Choice B) is not typically used for tuberculosis screening. Sputum culture (Choice C) is used to confirm active tuberculosis in symptomatic individuals, not for initial screening purposes.

5. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

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