Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Gingival hyperplasia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for this side effect as it can lead to oral health issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Phenytoin does not typically cause hypertension, hyperglycemia, or hypokalemia as common side effects.

2. While caring for the client during the first hour after delivery, the nurse determines that the uterus is boggy and there is vaginal bleeding. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Check vital signs
• B. Massage the fundus
• C. Offer a bedpan
• D. Check for perineal lacerations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when encountering a boggy uterus and vaginal bleeding after delivery is to massage the fundus. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus contract, which can reduce vaginal bleeding. Checking vital signs may be important but addressing the uterine atony and bleeding takes precedence. Offering a bedpan or checking for perineal lacerations are not the immediate actions needed to manage postpartum hemorrhage.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving baclofen (Lioresal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Drowsiness. Baclofen, a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat conditions like multiple sclerosis, can cause drowsiness as a side effect. Monitoring for drowsiness is important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice A, Hypertension, is incorrect because baclofen is not known to cause hypertension. Choice B, Muscle spasms, is not a common side effect of baclofen but rather the symptom it is used to treat. Choice D, Tachycardia, is also incorrect as baclofen is not associated with causing an increase in heart rate.

4. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

5. In the preparation of your health education plan, what is the first thing to do?

• A. Assess community needs for health education
• B. Identify the subjects for health teaching
• C. Specify your goals and objectives
• D. Identify who will provide support and the type of support to be provided

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess community needs for health education. This is the initial step in developing a health education plan as it helps in understanding the specific requirements of the community. Identifying subjects for teaching (choice B) comes after assessing needs. Specifying goals and objectives (choice C) is crucial but typically follows the assessment of community needs. Identifying support providers and types (choice D) is important but is not the first step in preparing a health education plan.

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