Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, which is an overgrowth of gum tissue. This side effect is important to report to the healthcare provider because it can lead to oral health problems. Choice A, drowsiness, is a common side effect of many antiepileptic drugs but is not specific to phenytoin. Choice C, weight gain, is not a typical side effect of phenytoin. Choice D, blurred vision, is not a common side effect of phenytoin; it is more commonly associated with other medications.

2. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

• A. Limited eye movement.
• B. Decreased peripheral vision.
• C. Blurred distance vision.
• D. Photosensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

3. A client reports new onset hearing loss bilaterally after taking a medication with known ototoxic effects. Which type of hearing loss should the nurse suspect?

• A. Conductive
• B. Sensorineural
• C. Mixed
• D. Central

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sensorineural. Ototoxic medications can lead to sensorineural hearing loss by affecting the inner ear or auditory nerve. Conductive hearing loss is related to issues in the middle or outer ear, not typically caused by ototoxic medications. Mixed hearing loss is a combination of conductive and sensorineural components. Central hearing loss is related to the central nervous system, not commonly caused by ototoxic medications. Therefore, in this case, the nurse should suspect sensorineural hearing loss.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
• D. Insulin shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

5. While walking to the mailbox, an older adult male experiences sudden chest tightness and drives himself to the emergency department. When the client gets up to the desk of the triage nurse, he says his heart is pounding out of his chest as he clutches his chest and falls to the floor. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Prepare for cardiac defibrillation.
• B. Apply cardiac monitor leads.
• C. Obtain troponin serum levels.
• D. Palpate the client’s artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Palpating the client's artery is the priority intervention in this scenario because it helps determine if there is a pulse, which is crucial information in emergency situations like this. If the client is pulseless, immediate initiation of CPR is necessary. Applying cardiac monitor leads or obtaining troponin serum levels can wait until the presence of a pulse is confirmed. Cardiac defibrillation is not indicated without first assessing the client's pulse and cardiac rhythm.

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