HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. What should be included in the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia?
- A. Multivitamins
- B. Calcium
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Iodine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ferrous sulfate. The therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia should include iron supplementation, specifically with ferrous sulfate. This helps to replenish the body's iron stores. Multivitamins (choice A) may contain iron, but iron supplementation is more direct and effective. Calcium (choice B) and iodine (choice D) are not typically part of the primary treatment for iron deficiency anemia.
2. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately
- B. Take the medication with antacids to reduce stomach upset
- C. Discontinue the medication if you feel drowsy
- D. Increase the dosage if you experience an aura
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.
3. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
- B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
- C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
- D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.
4. A client is currently receiving an infusion labeled as 5% dextrose injection 500 ml with heparin sodium 25,000 units at 14 mL/hour per pump. A prescription is received to change the rate of the infusion to heparin 1,000 units/hour. How many ml/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?
- A. 16 ml/hour.
- B. 18 ml/hour.
- C. 20 ml/hour.
- D. 22 ml/hour.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To deliver 1,000 units/hour from a solution with 25,000 units in 500 ml, the rate should be set to 20 ml/hour. This is calculated by determining that the solution has 50 units/ml (25,000 units / 500 ml = 50 units/ml) and then dividing the required 1,000 units/hour by 50 units/ml, resulting in 20 ml/hour. Therefore, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver heparin at 20 ml/hour. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate of 20 ml/hour.
5. A male client with heart failure calls the clinic and reports that he cannot put his shoes on because they are too tight. Which additional information should the nurse obtain?
- A. What time he took his medication?
- B. Has his weight changed in the last several days?
- C. Is he still able to tighten his belt buckle?
- D. How many hours he slept last night?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Has his weight changed in the last several days?' Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a common symptom of worsening heart failure. The inability to put on tight shoes can be due to fluid retention leading to swelling in the feet and ankles. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the potential fluid retention issue and are less relevant in this scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access