Nursing Elites

1. Based on this strip, what is the correct interpretation of this rhythm?

• A. Atrial fibrillation.
• B. Premature atrial fibrillation.
• C. AV block.
• D. Ventricular tachycardia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interpretation of the rhythm strip is atrial fibrillation. This arrhythmia is characterized by an irregular heartbeat and the absence of distinct P waves. Choice B, premature atrial fibrillation, is incorrect as there is no indication of premature beats in the strip. Choice C, AV block, is also incorrect as there is no evidence of conduction delays between the atria and ventricles. Choice D, ventricular tachycardia, is not supported by the absence of wide QRS complexes typically seen in this arrhythmia.

2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

3. While changing the dressing of a client with a leg ulcer, the nurse observes a red, tender, and swollen wound at the site of the lesion. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should note which of the client’s laboratory values?

• A. Neutrophil count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood pH.
• D. Serum potassium and sodium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil count. Neutrophil count helps assess for infection, which is indicated by the redness, tenderness, and swelling of the wound. Elevated neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. Hematocrit (choice B) measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells and is not directly related to wound infection. Blood pH (choice C) and serum potassium and sodium (choice D) are important for assessing acid-base balance and electrolyte levels but are not the primary indicators of wound infection.

4. An adult client who received partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body in a house fire is admitted to the inpatient burn unit.

• A. Normal Saline
• B. Lactated Ringer’s
• C. 5% Dextrose in water
• D. 0.45% Sodium Chloride

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In burn patients, Lactated Ringer's solution is preferred over other options as it helps in restoring fluid and electrolyte balance effectively. Lactated Ringer's contains electrolytes (sodium, potassium, calcium) that closely mimic the body's natural composition, making it a suitable choice for fluid resuscitation in burn injuries. Normal Saline (Choice A) lacks electrolytes like potassium and calcium, which are essential in burn management. 5% Dextrose in water (Choice C) is a hypotonic solution and is not the ideal choice for fluid resuscitation in burn patients. 0.45% Sodium Chloride (Choice D) is a hypotonic solution mainly used for conditions requiring free water replacement rather than volume expansion needed in burn injuries.

5. A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with 2 JP drains in the right side of the incision. One JP tube is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the JP?

• A. Reinforce the incisional dressings and assess behind the neck for drainage.
• B. Place the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Irrigate the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS, then close the opening with its tab.
• D. Compress the bulb with the tab open and then reinsert the tab into its opening.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Compressing the bulb with the tab open creates suction, which helps increase drainage into the JP drain. This action can aid in removing accumulated fluids from the surgical site. Reinforcing the incisional dressings and assessing behind the neck for drainage (Choice A) is not directly related to increasing drainage into the JP. Placing the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) may not directly impact drainage into the JP drain. Irrigating the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS and then closing the opening with its tab (Choice C) is unnecessary and could introduce contaminants into the drain.

Similar Questions