HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.
2. After delivering a healthy newborn, a client is experiencing postpartum hemorrhage. What initial intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a uterine massage
- C. Monitor the newborn's vital signs
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial intervention for postpartum hemorrhage is to perform a uterine massage. This action helps the uterus contract, controlling bleeding. Administering IV fluids may be necessary but is not the initial intervention. Monitoring the newborn's vital signs is important but not the priority when managing postpartum hemorrhage. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating immediate interventions to address the hemorrhage.
3. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Protect the client's head from injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What technique should the nurse emphasize?
- A. The importance of using a spacer
- B. How to synchronize breaths with inhaler activation
- C. Regular cleaning of the inhaler
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing COPD with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), the nurse should emphasize all of the techniques mentioned. Using a spacer can help improve drug delivery and reduce the risk of oral thrush. Synchronizing breaths with inhaler activation ensures proper medication delivery to the lungs. Regular cleaning of the inhaler prevents blockages and ensures optimal functioning. Therefore, all these techniques are important for effective COPD management, making 'All of the above' the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all crucial components of proper MDI technique in COPD, so they are not individually sufficient without the others.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Persistent cough
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
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