Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

2. When caring for a client with a urinary catheter, what is the most important intervention to prevent infection?

• A. Use sterile technique for catheter care
• B. Ensure the catheter bag is below the level of the bladder
• C. Provide perineal care daily
• D. Change the catheter only when necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important intervention to prevent infection when caring for a client with a urinary catheter is to ensure that the catheter bag is below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps prevent urine backflow, reducing the risk of infection. While using sterile technique for catheter care (Choice A) is important, ensuring proper drainage by keeping the catheter bag below the bladder is crucial to prevent infection. Providing perineal care daily (Choice C) is essential for hygiene but not directly related to preventing catheter-related infections. Changing the catheter only when necessary (Choice D) is important for maintenance, but correct positioning of the catheter bag is more critical in preventing immediate infection.

3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

4. A client is diagnosed with Angina Pectoris. Which factor in the client's history is likely related to the anginal pain?

• A. Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
• B. Drinks two beers daily
• C. Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun
• D. Eats while lying in bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Smokes one pack of cigarettes daily.' Smoking is a major risk factor for angina and other cardiovascular diseases due to its impact on blood vessels. Choice B, 'Drinks two beers daily,' is not directly associated with angina pectoris. While excessive alcohol consumption can contribute to heart problems, it is not a primary risk factor for angina. Choice C, 'Works in a job that requires exposure to the sun,' is not typically related to angina pectoris. Sun exposure is more closely linked to skin-related conditions. Choice D, 'Eats while lying in bed,' is also not a common risk factor for angina. While certain eating habits can impact heart health, this specific behavior is not directly associated with angina pectoris.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

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