Nursing Elites

1. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is receiving lithium (Lithobid). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Lithium can lead to hyponatremia by affecting sodium balance in the body. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is unlikely with lithium use. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) and hypercalcemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with lithium therapy for bipolar disorder.

3. A client is scheduled to have a blood test for cholesterol and triglycerides the next day. The nurse would tell the client

• A. ''Be sure to eat a fat-free diet until the test.''
• B. ''Do not eat or drink anything but water for 12 hours before the blood test.''
• C. ''Have the blood drawn within 2 hours of eating breakfast.''
• D. ''Stay at the laboratory so 2 blood samples can be drawn an hour apart.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting for at least 12 hours is necessary before a cholesterol and triglyceride test to ensure accurate results by avoiding fluctuations that can occur after eating. Choice A is incorrect because a fat-free diet is not required; fasting is. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests having the test right after eating, which can affect the results. Choice D is incorrect as there is no need to stay at the laboratory for 2 blood samples unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider.

4. What title should be given to this occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse with expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, risk reduction, and adult learning principles.

• A. case manager
• B. health educator
• C. nurse consultant
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: health promotion specialist.' This title aligns with the described expertise in health promotion, illness and injury prevention, and risk reduction. A health promotion specialist focuses on promoting health and preventing illnesses, which directly corresponds to the skills mentioned in the job description. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A 'case manager' typically focuses on coordinating patient care, 'health educator' specifically emphasizes educating individuals on health topics, and a 'nurse consultant' offers expert advice and support in the nursing field but may not specialize in health promotion and risk reduction as required in this job description.

5. A client with schizophrenia is receiving haloperidol (Haldol). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Extrapyramidal symptoms
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extrapyramidal symptoms. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as tardive dyskinesia and akathisia. These side effects are common with the use of typical antipsychotics. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common side effect of haloperidol. Choice B, Hypotension, is also not a typical side effect associated with haloperidol use. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is not directly linked to haloperidol administration, as it is more commonly associated with other medications like atypical antipsychotics or certain medical conditions.

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