Nursing Elites

1. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

2. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'health disparity'?

• A. Differences in health outcomes and their determinants between different segments of the population
• B. Providing equal healthcare services to all individuals
• C. Access to healthcare services regardless of income
• D. High-quality healthcare for everyone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Differences in health outcomes and their determinants between different segments of the population.' Health disparity refers to variations in health status or health care utilization between different groups. Choice B is incorrect because providing equal healthcare services to all individuals is related to health equity, not health disparity. Choice C is also incorrect as it refers to universal access to healthcare, which is different from health disparity. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the concept of high-quality healthcare for everyone, not health disparity.

3. As the immediate supervisor of the Rural Health Midwives, the PHN prepares a supervisory plan. Which of the following would be the PHN's activity?

• A. performing needs assessment
• B. listing supervisory activities
• C. identifying the training needs
• D. formulating objectives for supervision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: listing supervisory activities. When preparing a supervisory plan, the Public Health Nurse (PHN) needs to list the specific supervisory activities that need to be carried out. This helps in organizing and outlining the tasks that need to be accomplished to ensure effective supervision. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because although needs assessment, identifying training needs, and formulating objectives are important aspects of supervisory planning, they are not specifically related to the act of preparing a detailed list of supervisory activities.

4. Which of the following is an example of a social determinant of health?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Genetic mutations
• C. Housing conditions
• D. Age

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Housing conditions. Social determinants of health are the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. Housing conditions directly impact health outcomes as they can affect exposure to toxins, safety, and overall well-being. Choice A, blood pressure, is a physiological measure and not a social determinant. Choice B, genetic mutations, relates to an individual's genetic makeup and is not influenced by social factors. Choice D, age, is a demographic factor and not a social determinant of health.

5. While caring for a client with infective endocarditis, the nurse must be alert for signs of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following assessment findings suggests this complication?

• A. Positive Homan's sign
• B. Fever and chills
• C. Dyspnea and cough
• D. Sensory impairment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dyspnea and cough.' Pulmonary embolism often presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and cough, which are due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, fever and chills are nonspecific symptoms commonly seen in infective endocarditis, and sensory impairment is not typically indicative of pulmonary embolism.

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