Nursing Elites

1. Which of these tests with frequency would the nurse expect to monitor for the evaluation of clients with poor glycemic control in persons aged 18 and older?

• A. A glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) should be performed during an initial assessment and during follow-up assessments, which should occur at no longer than 3-month intervals
• B. A glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at least twice a year
• C. A fasting glucose and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 3-month intervals after the initial assessment
• D. A glucose tolerance test, a fasting glucose, and a glycosylated hemoglobin should be obtained at 6-month intervals after the initial assessment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Glycosylated hemoglobin (A1c) testing every 3 months is recommended for clients with poor glycemic control to monitor their average blood sugar levels and adjust treatment as necessary. Choice A is correct as it aligns with the guideline of performing A1c testing every 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because testing at least twice a year may not provide adequate monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions testing at 3-month intervals without specifying the importance of A1c testing. Choice D is incorrect as it includes unnecessary tests like glucose tolerance test and does not emphasize the importance of more frequent A1c monitoring for clients with poor glycemic control.

2. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?

• A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."
• B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."
• C. "It's all the other guy's fault! He was going too fast."
• D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement "I'd rather not talk about it right now" indicates that the client is consciously choosing to avoid discussing the distressing issue, which aligns with the mechanism of suppression. Choice A does not involve active avoidance but rather memory loss, which is not suppression. Choice C involves blaming others, which is a defense mechanism known as projection. Choice D involves expressing emotions rather than avoiding them, which does not align with suppression.

3. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

4. A client has developed thrombophlebitis of the left leg. Which nursing intervention should be given the highest priority?

• A. Elevate leg on 2 pillows
• B. Apply support stockings
• C. Apply warm compresses
• D. Maintain complete bed rest

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The highest priority nursing intervention for a client with thrombophlebitis of the left leg is to elevate the leg on 2 pillows. Elevating the leg helps reduce swelling and pain associated with thrombophlebitis by promoting venous return. Applying support stockings (choice B) can be beneficial but is not the highest priority as elevation is more effective in the acute phase. Applying warm compresses (choice C) may worsen the condition by dilating the blood vessels, leading to increased pain and swelling. Maintaining complete bed rest (choice D) is important, but elevation takes precedence to improve circulation and reduce the risk of complications.

5. The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with right lower lobe (RLL) pneumonia. On assessment, the nurse notes crackles over the RLL. The client has significant pleuritic pain and is unable to take in a deep breath in order to cough effectively.

• A. Impaired gas exchange related to acute infection and sputum production
• B. Ineffective airway clearance related to sputum production and ineffective cough
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to acute infection
• D. Anxiety related to hospitalization and role conflict

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's inability to effectively clear the airway due to pain and sputum production hinders the cough mechanism, making 'Ineffective airway clearance' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Although impaired gas exchange may occur due to the pneumonia, the immediate issue is the inability to clear the airway. 'Ineffective breathing pattern' does not address the specific issue of airway clearance. 'Anxiety' is not the priority when the focus should be on the physical complications of pneumonia.

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