Nursing Elites

1. When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed fondaparinux, the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant prescribed to prevent blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for an increased risk of bleeding, which is a potential adverse effect of this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fondaparinux does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stool, is crucial when a client is on fondaparinux.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Dizziness
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Rivaroxaban, an anticoagulant, may lead to weight gain as a side effect due to fluid retention. Dry mouth (choice B), dizziness (choice C), and headache (choice D) are not typically associated with rivaroxaban use. Therefore, monitoring for weight gain is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect in the client.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because edoxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding or affect the risk of infection; its primary concern is the potential for bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties.

5. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol
• B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Take medication with grapefruit juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.

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