Nursing Elites

1. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?

• A. Secondary level health care
• B. Intermediate level care
• C. Tertiary level care
• D. Primary health care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.

2. As a community organizer, the PHN facilitates the planning and implementation of program subjects in the community. In the light of the PHC approach, these programs/projects should be characterized by the following except:

• A. managed by the community leaders/members
• B. managed by non-government organizations for the people to ensure success
• C. compatible with available resources
• D. developmental in nature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of the PHC approach, programs should be characterized by being managed by community leaders/members (Choice A). This ensures community involvement and ownership. Programs should also be compatible with available resources (Choice C) to be sustainable and effective. Additionally, programs should be developmental in nature (Choice D), focusing on long-term improvements. Choice B is incorrect because programs should not be solely managed by non-government organizations; instead, they should be driven by the community to promote sustainability and empowerment.

3. A community health nurse is conducting a home visit to assess a family's health needs. What is the first step in this process?

• A. Develop a care plan
• B. Conduct a physical examination
• C. Establish rapport with the family
• D. Provide health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing rapport with the family is crucial in the initial stages of a home visit. It helps build trust, open communication channels, and allows the nurse to gain insight into the family's health needs and concerns. Developing a care plan (Choice A) comes after the assessment phase, where information is gathered. Conducting a physical examination (Choice B) is a part of the assessment but typically follows establishing rapport. Providing health education (Choice D) is important but usually occurs after the assessment and care planning stages.

4. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?

• A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
• B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
• C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
• D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

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