these facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.

2. When a nurse from the surgical department is reassigned to the pediatric unit, the charge nurse should recognize that the child at highest risk for cardiac arrest and is the least likely to be assigned to this nurse is which child?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Prolonged hypoxemia.' Prolonged hypoxemia is a critical condition that requires specialized pediatric care due to the high risk of cardiac arrest. The other choices, such as congenital cardiac defects, acute febrile illness, and severe multiple trauma, may also require attention, but prolonged hypoxemia poses the highest risk for cardiac arrest and demands specialized expertise in managing pediatric patients with this condition.

3. A client is suspected of being poisoned and presents with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth. The nurse should consider these findings consistent with which potential bioterrorism agent?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: botulism toxin. Botulism toxin is associated with symmetric, descending flaccid paralysis, blurred vision, double vision, and dry mouth, which are consistent with the client's presentation. Ricin (Choice A) typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms. Sulfur mustard (Choice C) is a blistering agent causing skin, eye, and respiratory issues. Yersinia pestis (Choice D) is associated with the bubonic plague, presenting with fever, malaise, and buboes.

4. The nurse is assessing a 12-year-old who has Hemophilia A. Which finding would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A deficiency of clotting factor VIII. Hemophilia A is characterized by a lack of clotting factor VIII, which is crucial for blood clotting. This deficiency results in prolonged bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. There is no association between Hemophilia A and an excess of red blood cells (Choice A) or an excess of white blood cells (Choice B). Additionally, Hemophilia A specifically involves a deficiency of clotting factor VIII, not both factors VIII and IX (Choice D).

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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