HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Exam
1. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?
- A. Secondary level health care
- B. Intermediate level care
- C. Tertiary level care
- D. Primary health care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.
2. In a long term rehabilitation care unit a client with spinal cord injury complains of a pounding headache. The client is sitting in a wheelchair watching television in the assigned room. Further assessment by the nurse reveals excessive sweating, a splotchy rash, pilomotor erection, facial flushing, congested nasal passages and a heart rate of 50. The nurse should do which action next?
- A. Take the client's respirations, blood pressure (BP), temperature and then pupillary responses
- B. Place the client into the bed and administer the ordered PRN analgesic
- C. Check the client for bladder distention and the client's urinary catheter for kinks
- D. Turn the television off and then assist client to use relaxation techniques
Correct answer: C
Rationale: These symptoms suggest autonomic dysreflexia, often triggered by bladder distention.
3. James is an 18-month-old child who has had a cough for 7 days with no general danger signs, a temperature of 37.5°C, and a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute. How will you classify James' breathing?
- A. Slow breathing
- B. Fast breathing
- C. Normal breathing
- D. Very fast breathing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Normal breathing.' A respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute is considered normal for an 18-month-old child. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a respiratory rate of 41 breaths per minute falls within the normal range for a child of James' age and does not indicate slow, fast, or very fast breathing.
4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Constipation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.
5. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
- A. Double the birth weight
- B. Triple the birth weight
- C. Gain 6 ounces each week
- D. Add 2 pounds each month
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Double the birth weight.' Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age. This is a common milestone in healthy infant growth and development. Choice B is incorrect because tripling the birth weight would be excessive and not in line with normal growth patterns. Choice C, 'Gain 6 ounces each week,' is not accurate as infant growth is not linear each week. Choice D, 'Add 2 pounds each month,' is also incorrect as this rate of growth would be too rapid and unrealistic for healthy infant development.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access