Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?

• A. Input and output measurements for the shift
• B. Blood pressure readings from the previous day
• C. Bone scan scheduled for today
• D. Medication regimen from the medication administration record

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.

2. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) places a client in a left lateral position before administering a soap suds enema. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN provide the UAP?

• A. Position the client on the right side of the bed in reverse Trendelenburg.
• B. Fill the enema container with 1000 ml of warm water and 5 ml of castile soap.
• C. Reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium.
• D. Raise the side rails on both sides of the bed and elevate the bed to waist level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the LPN/LVN should provide to the UAP is to reposition the client in a Sim's position with the weight on the anterior ilium for administering a soap suds enema. This position helps facilitate the administration of the enema by providing better access and comfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect as reverse Trendelenburg is not the appropriate position for administering a soap suds enema. Choice B is incorrect as the concentration of soap in the enema solution is not specified and might be too strong. Choice D is incorrect as raising the side rails and elevating the bed does not directly relate to the proper positioning for administering the enema.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Morning stiffness
• B. Joint deformities
• C. Weight loss
• D. Fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fever in a client with rheumatoid arthritis can indicate an underlying infection or a more serious systemic involvement, such as vasculitis or inflammation of internal organs. These conditions can lead to serious complications and require immediate medical attention. Joint deformities and morning stiffness are common manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis itself and may not be indicative of an acute issue. Weight loss can be seen in chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis but is not as concerning as fever, which suggests an acute process requiring prompt evaluation and intervention.

5. When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output.
• B. Add the amount of irrigant used to the urine output measurement.
• C. Measure the amount of irrigant used separately from the urine output.
• D. Document the total amount of fluid used for irrigation only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.

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