the nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel uap are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting t
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam 2024

1. The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are providing care for a client who exhibits signs of neglect syndrome following a stroke affecting the right hemisphere. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to demonstrate to the UAP how to approach the client from the client's left side. Approaching the client from the neglected side (left side) can help in retraining the brain and improving awareness of the affected side, which is crucial in the management of neglect syndrome. Choice B is incorrect as assessing the client's body for bruising is not directly related to managing neglect syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as observing the interaction between the client and family members does not address the specific intervention needed for neglect syndrome. Choice D is incorrect because protecting the client's left side when transferring to a chair does not actively involve retraining the brain and improving awareness of the neglected side, which is the primary goal in managing neglect syndrome.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.

3. The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.

4. The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client’s condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

5. A female Native American client who is receiving chemotherapy places a native artifact, an Indian medicine wheel, in her hospital room. The HCP removes the medicine wheel and tells the client, 'This type of thing does not belong in the hospital.' Which intervention should the PN implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Acting as the client's advocate is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Removing a culturally significant artifact without considering the client's beliefs and emotional needs can be distressing. By advocating for the client, the PN can ensure that the client's cultural practices are respected, which is crucial for her emotional and spiritual well-being during treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while chemotherapy adherence is important, it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. The client's cultural needs and well-being take precedence. Choice C is incorrect because consulting with a Native American healer might not be necessary at this point and could delay addressing the immediate issue of advocating for the client's rights. Choice D is incorrect because simply reporting the client's feelings of culture shock to the HCP does not actively address the situation or advocate for the client's rights and cultural needs.

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