Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Pancreatitis
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin, the nurse should monitor for pancreatitis as a potential adverse effect. Linagliptin has been associated with rare cases of pancreatitis; therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of pancreatitis such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

4. When a client with hepatic encephalopathy is receiving lactulose, which parameter is essential to monitor for a response to the drug?

• A. Serum hepatic enzymes
• B. Fingerstick glucose
• C. Stool color and character
• D. Serum electrolytes and ammonia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hepatic encephalopathy, the goal of lactulose therapy is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in the stool. Therefore, monitoring serum electrolytes and ammonia levels is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose in lowering ammonia levels and improving the client's condition. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because serum hepatic enzymes, fingerstick glucose, and stool color/character are not directly related to monitoring the response to lactulose therapy in hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

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